AIIMS 2013

To obtain a p-type germanium semi-conductor, it must be doped with

1  arsenic
2.  antimony
3.  indium
4.  phosphorous

Sound waves do not show the phenomenon of:
1. interference
2. diffraction
3. refraction
4. polarisation

The magnifying power of a compound microscope is high if

1.  both the objective and the eyepiece has short focal lengths
2.  both the objective and the eyepiece have long focal lengths
3.  the objective has a short focal length and the eyepiece has a long focal length
4.  the objective has a long focal length and the eyepiece has a short focal length

1 curie is

1.  1 dps
2.  3×10¹⁰ dps
3.  10⁶ dps s
4.  3.7×10¹⁰ dps

To double the covering range of a TV transmitter tower, its height should be made

1.  2 times
2.  4 times
3.

times
4. 8 times

An alternating voltage V = V₀sin ωt is applied across a circuit. As result

I = I_{o} \sin (ωt - \frac{π}{2})

flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is

1. zero
2. 0.5 V₀I₀
_3.0.707 V₀I₀
_4.1.414 V₀I₀

A slab consist of two portions of different materials of same thickness and having the conductivitiesK₁ and K₂. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is

1. K₁+ K₂
_2.

A prism is made up of material of refractive index

. The angle of prism is A. If the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism, then the value of A is

1.  30°
2.  45°
3.  60°
4.  75°

The following table

is a truth table for

1.  NAND gate
2.  NOR gate
3.  XOR gate
4.  AND gate

10.

The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. This means that

1. The substance completely disintegrates in 20 days
2. The substance completely disintegrates in 40 days
3. 1/8 part of the mass of the substance will be left intact at the end of 40 days
4. 7/8 part of the mass of the substance disintegrates in 30 days

11.

A source and an observer are moving towards each other with a speed equal to v/2, where v is the speed of sound. The source is emitting sound of frequency n. The frequency heard by one observer will be

1.  zero
2.  n
3.

4. 3n

12.

Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular sound in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent to phase difference of 1.6π. The frequency of the wave is

1.  165 Hz
2.  150 Hz
3.  660 Hz
4.  330 Hz

13.

The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is

1.  0.2
2.  0.4
3.  0.8
4.  0.6

14.

A particle is executing linear simple harmonic motion of amplitude A. What fraction of the total energy is kinetic when the displacement is half the amplitude
1.

15.

Two simple harmonic motions are represented by y₁=4sin

(4 π t - \frac{π}{2})

and y₂= 3cos(4πt). The resultant amplitude is

1.  7
2.  1
3.  5
4.  2+

16.

Three plates of common surface area A are connected as shown in figure. The effective capacitance will be

1.  3ε₀A/d
2.  ε₀A/d
3.  2ε₀A/d
4.

ε₀A/d

17.

When 20 J of work was done on the gas, 40 J of heat energy was released. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 70 J, what is the final internal energy?
1.  50 J
2.  -150 J
3.  90 J
4.  110 J

18.

The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 ms^-2. Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of g at the same point (distance of the point from the centre of earth does not change) will now be

1. 9.8 ms^-2
^2.4.9 ms^-2
^3.19.6 ms^-2
^4.39.2 ms^-2

19.

A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid. Which of the following
graphs represent the variation of
(i) gravitational force with time
(ii) viscous force with time
(iii) net force acting on the ball with time?

1.  Q, R, P
2.  R, Q, P
3.  P, Q, R
4.  R, P, Q

20.

The young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is y newton per square metre. If the length is reduced to

and radius

. Its young’s modulus will be

1.

2.  Y
3.  2Y
4.  4Y

21.

A boy of mass m stands on one end of a wooden plank of length L and mas M. The plank is floating on water. If the boy walks from one end of the plank to the other end at a constant speed, the resulting displacement of the plank is given by

1.

22.

A sphere of solid material of relative density 9 has a concentric spherical cavity and just sinks in water. If the radius of sphere be R, then the radius of cavity (r) will be related to R as
1. r³ = ${{8}\over{9}}$R³

^2.r³ = ${{2}\over{3}}$R³

^3.r³ = ${{\sqrt{8}}\over{3}}$R³

^4.r³ = ${{\sqrt{2}}\over{3}}$R³

23.

Average value of kinetic energy and potential energy over entire time period in a SHM is

1. 0,

mω²A²,

mω²A²

24.

In which of the states shown in figure, is potential energy of a electric dipole maximum?

1.

25.

A car is travelling with a linear velocity v on a circular road of radius r. If it is increasing its speed at the rate of a m/s², then the resultant acceleration will be

1.

26.

A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane of paper, exsisted in space initially directed from left to right. When a bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the lines of force passing through it will be represented by figure.

1.

27.

A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the nth second to the distance covered in n second

1.

28.

Wind blowing from South at 10 m/s but to a cyclist, it appears to be blowing from the East at 10 m/s. The cyclist has a velocity:

10 \hat{i} - 10 \hat{j}

10 \hat{i} + 10 \hat{j}

- 10 \hat{i} + 10 \hat{j}

- 10 \hat{i} - 10 \hat{j}

29.

The current i and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ are shown in the figure. It is concluded that

1. T₁>T₂
_2.T₁<T₂
_3.T₁ = T₂
_4.T₁ = 2T₂

30.

The internal resistance of primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω. The rate at which chemical energy is consumed is providing the current is

1.  0.42 J/s
2.  0.24 J/s
3.  5 J/s
4.  1 J/s

31.

There are four point charges +q, -q, +q and –q are places at the corners A, B, C and D respectively of a square of side a. The potential energy of the system is times

32.

The potential difference across the 3Ω resistor shown in figure is

1.  zero
2.  1 V
3.  3.5 V
4.  7 V

33.

There are N cells in the circuit of figure. The emf and internal resistance of each cell is E and rrespectively. The points A and B in the circuit divide the curit into n and (N-n) cells. The current in the circuit is

1.  E/r
2.  nE/r
3.  NE/nr
4.  zero

34.

The earth’s magnetic field at a certain place has ahorizontal component of 0.3 G and total strength 0.5 G. Find angle of dip in tan^-1.

1. δ =tan^-1

The two spherical conductor A and B. of radii a and b(b>a) are placed concentrically in air. The two arc connected by a copper wire as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance of the system is

1.

2.  4πε₀(a+b)
3.  4πε₀b
4.  4πε₀a

36.

The force F is given by expression F = Acos(Bx) + Csin(Dt), where x is the displacement and t is the time. Then dimensions of $\frac{D}{B}$ are the same as that of:

1.  velocity [LT^-1]
2.  angular velocity [T^-1]
3.  angular momentum [ML²T^-1]
4.  velocity gradient [T^-1]

37.

The thermo emf of a thermocupule varies with the temperature θ of the hot junction as
E= aθ +bθ² volt Where the ratio (a/b) is 700 °C. If the cold junction is kept at 0 °C, then the neutral temperature is

1.  700 °C
2.  350 °C
3.  1400 °C
4.  no neutral temperature is possible

38.

The wire shown in figure carries a current of 32 A. If r =3.14 cm, the magnetic field at point P will be

1.  1.6×10^-4T
2.  3.2×10^-4 T
3.  4.8×10^-4T
4.  6.4×10^-4 T

39.

Carbon, silicon and germanium are semiconductors having four valance electrons. If their respective band gap energies between conduction and valence band are (Eg)_C, (Eg)_Si, (Eg)_Ge. Then

1. (E_g)_Si<(E_g)_Ge< (E_g)_C
_2.(E_g)_C< (E_g)_Ge< (E_g)_Si
_3.(E_g)_C >(E_g)_Si> (E_g)_Ge
_4.(E_g)_C =(E_g)_Ge=(E_g)_Si

40.

Assertion: In an elastic collision between two bodies, the energy of each body is conserved.
Reason: The total energy of an isolated system is conserved.

41.

The two spherical conductor A and B. of radii a and b(b>a) are placed concentrically in air. The two arc connected by a copper wire as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance of the system is
1.

2.  4πε₀(a+b)
3.  4πε₀b
4.  4πε₀a

42.

Assertion: A body can be at rest even when it is under the action of any number of external forces.
Reason: Vector sum of all the external forces is zero.

43.

Assertion: In a non-uniform circular motion, the acceleration of the particle is equal to sum of the tangential acceleration and the centripetal acceleration.
Reason: The two acceleration are perpendicular to each other.

44.

Assertion: A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at that instant of time.
Reason: The body will be momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.

45.

Assertion: Work done in moving a charge between any two points in a uniform electric field is independent of the path followed by the charge, between these points.
Reason: Electrostatic forces are non-conservative.

46.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	In a transistor amplifier, the output voltage is always out of phase with the input voltage.
Reason (R):	The emitter base junction is reverse biased and the base collector junction is forward biased.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

47.

Assertion: In case of pure rolling, the force of friction becomes zero.
Reason: The speed at the point of contact is zero.

48.

Assertion: Heat from the sun reaches the earth by convection.
Reason: Air can be heated only by convection.

49.

Assertion: A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it.
Reason: Rate of flow of electron’s in one direction is equal to the rate of flow of protons in opposite direction.

50.

Assertion: If an electron and proton enter a perpendicular magnetic field with equal momentum, then radius of curve for electron is more than that of proton.
Reason: Electron has less mass than proton.

51.

Assertion: The ratio is more for helium gas than for hydrogen gas.
Reason: Atomic mass of helium is more than that of hydrogen.

52.

Assertion: Our ears cannot distinguish two notes, one produced by a violin and other by a guitar, if they have exactly same intensity and same frequency.
Reason: When a musical instrument is played, it produces a fundamental note which is accompanied by a number of overtones called harmonics.

53.

Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength equation has significance for any microscope and submicroscopic particles.
Reason: de-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object its velocity is constant.

54.

Assertion: In stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason: The ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is independent of the position.

55.

Assertion: Electrons move from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.
Reason: An electron has less potential energy at a point where potential is higher and vice-versa.

56.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	In a radioactive disintegration, an electron is emitted by the nucleus.
Reason (R):	Electrons are present inside the nucleus.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

57.

Assertion: A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond a certain minimum distance.
Reason: The human eye has the capacity to suitably adjust the focal length of its lens to a certain extent.

58.

Assertion: A satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total energy E₀, then its potential energy is –E₀.
Reason: Potential energy of the body at a point in a gravitational field of orbit is .

59.

Assertion: If a liquid in a vessel is stirred and left to itself, the motion disappear after few minutes.
Reason: The moving liquid exerts equal and opposite force.

60.

Assertion: At the centre of earth a body has centre of mass, but no centre of gravity.
Reason: This is because g=0 at the centre of earth.

61.

Aspirin acts as an analgesic because it

1.  inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins which stimulates inflammation of the tissue
2.  prevents the release of HCl in the stomach
3.  prevents the interaction of histamine with its receptor
4.  inhibit activities of enzymes

62.

Starch is a mixture of two components, a water soluble component amylose (15-20%) and a water insoluble component amylopectin (80-85%). The aqueous solution of amylase gives a blue colour with iodine solution due to the formation of

1.  amylase iodide
2.  amylase iodate
3.  inclusion complex
4.  amylase tetraiodide complex

63.

What reagent is used in the Hinsberg test of amines?

1.  (CH₃CO)₂ and pyridine
2.  C₆H₅SO₂ Cl in aq. NaOH
3.  NaNO₂ in aq. H₂SO₄
_4.CH₃l (excess) followed by AgOH

64.

Aldol condensation between which of the following two compounds followed by dehydration gives methyl vinyl ketone?

1.  Formaldehyde and acetone
2.  Formaldehyde and acetaldehyde
3.  Two molecules of acetone
4.  Two molecules of acetaldehyde

65.

Grignard reagents and organolithium compounds in addition to dry ice separately, followed by hydrolysis give:
1. ketones and carboxylic acids respectively
2. carboxylic acids and ketones respectively
3. only carboxylic acids
4. only ketones

66.

The strongest acid among the following is:
1.  o-methoxy phenol
2.  p-methoxy phenol
3.  m-methoxy phenol
4.  phenol

67.

On commercial scale phenol is obtained from chlorobenzene. The chlorobenzene needed for the purpose is prepared by Rachig’s process. Which one of the following is Rachig’s process?

1.

68.

How many mL of 0.125 M Cr³⁺ must be reacted with 12.00 mL of 0.200 M

if the redox products are

and Mn²⁺?

1.  8 mL
2.  16 mL
3.  24 mL
4. 32 mL

69.

At 300 K, the 36 g of glucose present per litre of solution has an osmotic pressure of 4.98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of the solution is 1.52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its concentration?
1. 11 g L^-1

2. 22 g L^-1

3. 36 g L^-1

4. 42 g L^-1

70.

The composition of a sample of wurtzite is Fe_0.93O. What percentage of the iron is present in the form of Fe (III)?

1.  5%
2.  7.08%
3.  15.05%
4.  23.6%

71.

When acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution is added to Sn²⁺ salts, then Sn²⁺ changes to

1. Sn
2. Sn³⁺
^3.Sn⁴⁺
^4.Sn⁺

72.

What would be the expected product of the reaction of propyne with Br₂/H₂O if the mechanism of this reaction is analogous to that of propene?

1.  2-brompropenol
2.  Bromoacetone
3.  2-bromo-2-propanol
4.  Bromoprophenol

73.

Which of the following carbocation would have the greatest stability?

1. CH₃ -S-CH₂⁺
^2.

74.

Electron affinity is positive, when

1. O changes into O^-
^2.O^- changes into O^2-
^3.O changes into O⁺
^4.electron affinity is always negative

75.

Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism?

1.  Chain isomerism and rotational isomerism
2.  Structural isomerism and geometrical isomerism
3.  Linkage isomerism and geometrical isomerism
4.  Optical isomerism and geometrical isomerism

76.

Using the date given below find out the strongest reducing agent.
E^oCr₂O₄/Cr³⁺ = 1.33 V, E^o Cl₂/Cl^- = 1.36 V,
E^o

/Mn²⁺ = 1.51 V, E^o Cr³⁺/Cr = -0.74 V

1. Cl^-
^2.Mn²⁺
^3.Cr
4. Cr³⁺

77.

EMF of Daniell cell was found using different concentrations of Zn²⁺ion. A graph was then plotted between E_cell and log$\frac{[Zn^{2+}]}{[Cu^{2+}]}$. The plot was found to be linear with an intercept of $E_{cell}$ axis equal to 1.10 V. E_cell for Zn/Zn²⁺ (0.1 M)||Cu²⁺(0.01 M)| Cu will be:

78.

Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?

1.  Electron capture by sol particles
2.  Adsorption of ionic species from solution
3.  Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer
4.  Absorption of ionic species from solution

79.

In the metallurgy of aluminium

1.  Al³⁺ is oxidised to Al (S)
2.  graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
3.  oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at anode
4.  oxidation state of oxygen changes in the overall reaction involved in the process

80.

In the preparation of HNO₃ we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH₃ will be

1.  2
2.  3
3.  4
4.  6

81.

The reaction of P₄ with X leads selectively to P₄O₆. The X is

1. dry O₂
_2.a mixture of O₂ and N₂
_3.Moist O₂
_4.O₂ is presence of aq. NaOH

82.

Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds are not feasible?

1. 2XeF₄+6H₂O→ 2Xe+XeO₃+12HF+1.5O₂
_2.2XeF₂+2H₂O→ 2Xe+4HF+O₂
_3.XeF₆+RbF→ Rb[XeF₇]
4. XeO₃+6HF→ XeF₆+3H₂O

83.

The thermal decomposition of HCOOH is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4×10^-3s^-1 at certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three fourths of initial quantity of HCOOH to decompose?

1.  578 s
2.  225 s
3.  436 s
4. 57.8 s

84.

The rate constant k of a reaction varies with temperature according to the equation $log \ k \ = \ constant \ - \ \frac{E_{a}}{2.303R}\times \frac{1}{T}$ ; where E_a is the energy of activation for the reaction. When a graph is plotted for log k vs $\frac{1}{T}$ a straight line with a slope
-6670 K is obtained. The activation energy for this reaction will be: (R = 8.314 JK^-1mol^-1).
1. 122.65 kJmol^-1

^2.127.71 kJmol^-1

^3.142.34 kJmol^-1

^4.150.00 kJmol^-1

85.

Which of the following statements is not correct about the order of a reaction?

1.	The order of a reaction can be a fractional number.
2.	The order of a reaction is an experimentally determined quantity.
3.	The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
4.	The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of molar concentrations of the reactants in the rate law expression.

86.

Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro compound to an amine?

1.  H₂ (excess)/Pt
2.  LiAlH₄ in ether
3.  Fe and HCl
4.  Sn and HCl

87.

Which is the correct statement about birth control pills?

1.  Contain estrogen only
2.  Contain progesterone only
3.  Contain a mixture of estrogen and progesterone dertivatives
4.  Progesterone enhances ovulation

88.

is a polymer having monomer units.

1.

89.

Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which chain is formed by C₁-C₄glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C₁-C₆ glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to

1.  amylose
2.  amylopectin
3.  cellulose
4.  glucose

90.

Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is said to be

1.  primary structure of proteins
2.  secondary structure of proteins
3.  tertiary structure of proteins
4.  quaternary structure of proteins

91.

The anticodon transfer RNA for the messenger RNA codon GCA is

1.  TGA
2.  GUT
3.  AGT
4.  CGU

92.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1.  Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high octane rating
2.  H₂O₂ with suitable catalyst is now used in bleaching of paper
3.  Now-a-days ethanol is produced by one step oxidation of othene in presence of ionic catalyst in squeous medium
4.  The growth of fish gets inhibited, if the concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is over 6 ppm.

93.

The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are

1.  unity
2.  zero
3.  < 0
4. different for each element

94.

2 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands isothermally into a vacuum until its total volume is 10 L. How much work is done in the expansion?

1.  8 L-atm
2.  16.1 L-atm
3.  24.0 L-atm
4.  No work is done

95.

Predict in which of the following entropy decreases.

1.  A liquid crystallizes into a solid
2.  Temperature of a crystalline solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K
3.  2NaHCO₃ (s) →Na₂CO₃(s) + CO₂ (g)+H₂O(g)
4.  H₂ (g) → 2H(g)

96.

The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is

1.  1
2.  2
3.  3
4.  4

97.

How many σ and π bonds are in

ion?

1.  4, 2
2.  3, 2
3.  4, 3
4.  3, 3

98.

The shape of the orbital with the value of l=2, m=0 is:
1. Spherical
2. Double dumb-bell
3. Trigonal planar
4. Square planar

99.

For the reaction, 1 g mole of CaCO₃ is enclosed in 5 L container
CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g)
K_p=1.16 at 1073 K then per cent dissociation of CaCO₃ is

1.  zero
2.  6.58%
3.  65%
4.  100%

100.

Ionic product of Ni(OH)₂ is 2.0×10^-15. Molar solubility of Ni(OH)₂ in 0.10 M NaOH will be

1.  1.0×10^-13 M
2.  2.0×10^-13 M
3.  4.0×10^-13 M
4.  8.0×10^-13 M

101.

Assertion: Neoprene can be further hardened by heating in presence of sulphur.
Reason: Neoprene contains allylic double bonds which help in introducing sulphur bridges between different polymer chains.

102.

Assertion: Deoxyribose, C₅H₁₀O₄ is not a carbohydrate.
Reason: Carbohydrates are hydrates of carbon so compounds which follow C_x(H₂O)_y formula are carbohydrates.

103.

Assertion: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
Reason: Friedel-Crafts is an electrophilic substitution reaction.

104.

Assertion: In comparison to ethyl chloride it is difficult to carry out nucleophilic substitution on vinyl chloride.
Reason: Vinyl group is electron donating.

105.

Assertion: Phenol forms 2, 4, 6-tribomophenol on treatment with Br₂ in carbon disulphide at 273 K.
Reason: Bromine polarises in carbon disulphide.

106.

Assertion: On cooling, the brown colour of nitrogen dioxide disappears.
Reason: On cooling, NO₂ undergoes dimerisation resulting in the pairing of odd electrons of NO₂.

107.

Assertion: Na⁺ and Al³⁺ are isoelectronic but the magnitude of ionic radius of Al³⁺ is less than that of Na⁺.
Reason: The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell electrons in Al³⁺ is greater than that in Na⁺.

108.

Assertion: C_p – C_v = R, for an ideal gas.
Reason: R is the work done when temperature of one mole of an ideal gas is increased by 1 °.

109.

Assertion: On addition of NH₄Cl to NH₄OH solution, pH decreases but remains greater than 7.
Reason: Addition of ion decreases ionisation of NH₄OH thus [OH^-] is decreases, hence pH decreases.

110.

Assertion: The mobility of sodium ion is lower than that of potassium ion.
Reason: The ionic mobilities depend on the effective radius of the ion.

111.

Assertion: On adding zinc pieces to aqueous FeCl₃ solution, colour changes from deep yellow to light green.
Reason: Aqueous FeCl₃ is acidic and on adding Zn, nascent hydrogen is produced which reduces deep yellow FeCl₃ solution to light green FeCl₂ solution.

112.

Assertion: p-chlorobenzoic acid is stronger acid than benzoic acid.
Reason: Chlorine has electron donating resonance (+R) effect.

113.

Assertion: A free radical is paramagnetic species.
Reason: A free radical is formed by homolytic fission of covalent bond.

114.

Assertion: Addition of one equivalent of HCl to 1, 3-butadiene at 80 °C gives 3-chloro-1-butene as major product.
Reason: 3-chloro-1 butene is a kinetically controlled product.

115.

Assertion: Semiconductors are solids with conductivities in the intermediate range from 10^-6 -10⁴ohm^-1 m^-1.
Reason: Intermediate conductivity in semiconductor is due to partially filled valence band.

116.

Assertion: When methanol is added to water boiling point of water increases.
Reason: When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is observed.

117.

Assertion: The Daniell cell becomes dead after some time.
Reason: Oxidation potential of zinc anode decreases and that of copper increases.

118.

Assertion: The highest oxidation state of Os is +8.
Reason: Osmium is a 5 d-block element.

119.

Assertion: Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason: Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

120.

Assertion: Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent.
Reason: Compounds containing—CHO group reduce Tollen’s reagent.

121.

Speciation of sympatric species is due to

1.  geographic isolation
2.  reproductive isolation
3.  isolation/separation
4.  migration

122.

The application of synthetic plant hormone like IAA, IBA and NAA are best described as

1.  prevent early fruit fall before harvesting and is used to produce parthenocarpic fruit
2.  prevent early fruit fall only
3.  to produce both seed less fruits and fruits with seeds
4.  to produce larger fruit

123.

Flame cells and Malpighian tubules are the analogous organs in

1.  insects and arthropods respectively
2.  arthropods and echinodermates respectively
3.  helminths and arthropods with other insect respectively
4.  arthropods and other insect with helminths respectively

124.

Trochlear, trigeminal and glossopharyngeal nerve are respectively.

1.  IX, V and IV
2.  IV, V and IX
3.  V, IV and IX
4.  VI, V and IX

125.

Who has proposed theory of cohesion and adhesion forces?

1.  Dixon and Jolly (1894)
2.  Dixon and Benson (1885)
3.  Dixon and Jolly (1950)
4.  Sir Jagdish Chandra Bose (1850)

126.

Which one of the following useful organisms is not a part in production of curd/yoghurt?

1.  S. thermophilus
2.  Lactobacillus bulgaricus
3.  Acetobactoraceti
4.  Streptococcus lactis

127.

A man whose father is a colourblind, marry a woman, who is a daughter of colourblind mother. The offspring of this couple will be

1.  all daughter and sons are colourblind
2.  50% colourblind and 50% normal son
3.  carrier normal daughter and colourblind sons
4.  colourblind sons and normal daughter

128.

In a child of 15 years age, plasma calcium level is diagnosed below optimum level. Which organ is malfunctioning?

1.  Thyroid gland
2.  Liver
3.  Parathyroid
4.  Posterior lobe of pituitary

129.

Which one of the following best describes polygenic inheritance?

1.  ABO blood group in human and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa
2.  hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans
3.  Human eye colour and sickle-cell anaemia
4.  Human height and colour of skin and eyes

130.

Get through the following table comparing the effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. Which one is matched correctly?

1.  a
2.  b
3.  c
4.  d

131.

Which one of the following set meaning is not different?

1.  Criston — Triplet
2.  DNA profile — DNA type
3.  Gene pool — Genome
4.  Gene — Codon

132.

How macula lutea and corpus luteum are related?

1.  Contribute in maintain pregnancy
2.  Both are a source of hormones
3.  Both are characterised by their yellow colour
4.  Both are found in human ovaries

133.

Which one as used/regarded as biofertiliser?

1.  A association between pteridophytes and cyanobacteria Anabaena
2.  A association between gymnosperms and Nostoc
3.  A association between legume and Rhizobium
4.  All of the above

134.

Which one of the following useful organisms is not a part in production of curd/yoghurt?

1.  S. thermophilus
2.  Lactobacillus bulgaricus
3.  Acetobactoraceti
4.  Streptococcus lactis

135.

The drugs, which do not develop physiological dependence is

1.  sedative and tranqualisers
2.  stimulational cocaine
3.  opiates
4.  hallucinogens

136.

The common characteristic showing by mushroom, smut and rust

1.  is characterised by presence of basidiocarps
2.  is characterised by presence of ascocarps
3.  all are pathogen
4.  all are saprophytic in nature

137.

A reptilian looks like house lizard is sitting on plant with its tail coiled around twig in your garden. Can you identify the animal?

1.  Garden lizard (Calotes) showing camouflage
2.  Chamaeleon showing protective colouration
3.  Varanus showing mimicry
4. Hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism

138.

Different varieties of Indian mangoes are most popular in Western and some other European flavour, colour, sugar and fleshy content is due to

1.  genetic diversity
2.  species diversity
3.  induced mutation
4.  hybridisation

139.

hn RNA undergoes two additional process. Out of them in one process an unusual nucleotide (methyl GPT) is added to the 5’ end of molecule. What would you called this?

1.  Tailing
2.  Splicing
3.  Termination
4.  Capping

140.

Which one exhibits the character of a protozoan during one phase of its life cycle and character of fungi in another phase of its life cycle?

1.  Water moulds
2.  Psilophytes
3.  Slime moulds
4.  Diatoms

141.

Wernickes syndrome is generally common in alcoholic person; which is characterised by less mental activity and dual vision. It is caused by the deficiency of

1.  riboflavin
2.  thiamine
3.  pyridoxine
4.  retinol

142.

Which one of the most common embryo sac in flowering plant?

1.  Monosporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled
2.  Monosporic, 7 celled and 7 nucleated
3.  Bisporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled
4.  Bisporic, 8 nucleated and 7 celled

143.

Which type of immunoglobulin is/are abundantly found in foetus?

1.  lgE
2.  lgG
3.  lgM
4.  lgD

144.

The mandatory combination responsible for assembly of microtubules are

1. Na⁺ and Ca²⁺
^2.Mg²⁺ and Ca²⁺
^3.Cl^- and Ca²⁺
^4.Na⁺ and K⁺

145.

Which one plant movement is unidirectional?

1.  Phototaxis
2.  Chemotaxis
3.  Both (A) and (B)
4.  Thigmotrophism

146.

The exchange of segments of two non-homologous pair of chromosomes is termed as

1.  crossing over
2.  linkage
4.  transformation
4.  translocation

147.

Spirochaetes is/are

1.  a class of viruses
2.  myxobacteria
3.  spiral-shaped bacteria
4.  richittsias

148.

SER and RER can be distinguished with its presence in

1.  protein synthesizing cells
2.  protein and lipid synthesizing cells, respectively
3.  carbohydrates and fat synthesizing cells, respectively
4.  fat and protein synthesizing cells, respectively

149.

Human Immuno Virus (HIV) contain a protein coat and genetic material and is horse chestnut shaped

1.  double-stranded DNA
2.  single-stranded DNA
3.  single-stranded RNA
4.  double-stranded RNA

150.

Root cambium is derived from

1.  primary meristem
2.  secondary meristem
3.  intercalary meristem
4.  apical meristem

151.

Which one contain most reduced form of stem?

1.  Bulb
2.  Rhizome
3.  Tuber
4.  Twinner

152.

Which enzyme complex is responsible for the reduction of molecular nitrogen to the level of NH₃ in root module of legume?

1.  Aminase
2.  Nitrogenase
3.  Nitrate reductase
4.  Nitrite reductase

153.

The plants which can withstand with narrow and broad range of temperature tolerance respectively are

1.  monothermal and stenothermal
2.  stenothermal and monothermal
3.  stenothermal and eurythermal
4.  stenothermal and mesothermal

154.

Desert can be converted into a lush green land by planting

1.  terrestrial plant
2.  xerophytic plant
3.  halophytes
4.  psammophytes

155.

Which one is a source of commercially important product Syzygiumaromaticum?

1.  Flower bud
2.  Axillary bud
3.  Thalamus
4.  Peduncle

156.

When a fern plant is developed from its prothallus without fertilisation? This phenomenon is an example of

1.  parthenocarpy
2.  apogamy
3.  apospory
4.  organogenesis

157.

Brunner's gland is characteristic feature of

1.  jejunum of small intestine
2.  ileum
3.  duodenum
4.  fundic region of stomach

158.

Which one dental formula represent a heterdont placental draught and tough animal?

1. l

Pullorum disease in fowls is caused by

1.  Salmonella
2.  Clostridium
3.  Hemophilus
4. Mycobacterium

160.

Green muffler play a important role against

1.  noise pollution
2.  radioactive pollution
3.  soil pollution
4.  air pollution

161.

Assertion: Plasmids are single-stranded extrachromosomal DNA
Reason: Plasmid is usually present in eukaryotic cells.

162.

Assertion: The megaspore mother cell divide by meiotic division to produce four spore.
Reason: Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) are diploid and megaspore are haploid.

163.

Assertion: Living organisms are considered as a close system.
Reason: Energy of living organism cannot be lost or gained from external environment.

164.

Assertion: Medulla is considered as a respiratory centre in animals.
Reason: Rate of breathing is regulated by medulla because of the changes in O₂ content of blood.

165.

Assertion: Tropical rain forest are rich in flora and fauna along with microbes on this biosphere.
Reason: The low latitude humid tropics harbour the rainforest ecosystems.

166.

Assertion: Erythroblastosis foetalis is disease related with Rh factor and may cause death of developing foetus inside womb.
Reason: It causes massive destruction of erythrocytes in foetus that leads to anaemia and tissue damage of foetus.

167.

Assertion: Radial vascular bundle is the characteristic of the majority of the roots including dicots and monocots.
Reason: Monocot stem is characterised by collateral open vascular bundle.

168.

Assertion: Due to excessive use of fertiliser and pesticides the available capillary water turns to hypotonic is relation to cell sap.
Reason: The water molecule, as a result, diffuse out of the cells due to endosmosis.

169.

Assertion: Amphibian heart consists of two auricles and one ventricle.
Reason: The deoxygenated blood is returned to heart through sinus venosus.

170.

Assertion: Humans are considered advanced from all its primates relatives because of the larger cranial capacity and high intelligence.
Reason: A lumber curve is present in man which is also present in apes.

171.

Assertion: Chromosomes are divided into heterochromatin and euchromatin part.
Reason: Heterochromatin are those regions of chromosome that remain condensed during interphase and rest of the non-condensed chromosome are called euchromatin.

172.

Assertion: Tongue is a gustatoreceptor.
Reason: Receptors for gustatosensation are located in taste bud.

173.

Assertion: Aflatoxinis commercially produced by a species of aspergilla.
Reason: These toxins are useful to mankind.

174.

Assertion: Mosses are might have originated from algae.
Reason: Protonema of bryophytes is similar to some green algae.

175.

Assertion: Cartilage and bone are flexible and rigid connective tissue.
Reason: Blood is a connective tissue.

176.

Assertion: Cell wall is generally absent in animal cell.
Reason: Animal cells are covered by a cell membrane.

177.

Assertion: Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal sized blastomeres is a characteristics feature of placental mammals.
Reason: Egg of most mammal including human are of centrolecithal type.

178.

Assertion: Most cells in human body release excessive amount of inflammatory chemicals which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergen present in environment or reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals.

179.

Assertion: In angiosperm, the conduction of water is more efficient because xylem contain vessels.
Reason: Conduction of water by xylem vessels elements is an active process with energy supplied by xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.

180.

Assertion: Gram negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.
Reason: The outer membrane of Gram negative (-ve) bacteria contain lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into membrane lipid.

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