Combined Prodigy Test - 16th March

PHYSICS

1. A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden block with velocity $u$. When bullet travels $24$ cm through the block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes $u/3$. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is:

1.	$30$ cm	2.	$27$ cm
3.	$24$ cm	4.	$28$ cm

2. The area of a rectangular field (in $\text{m}^2$) of length $55.3$ m and breadth $25$ m after rounding off the value, for correct significant digits is:
1. $14\times10^{2}$
2. $138\times10^{1}$
3. $1382$
4. $1382.5$

3. The position-time $(x\text-t)$ graph for positive acceleration is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

4.

One end of the string of length $l$ is connected to a particle of mass $m$ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed $v$, the net force on the particle (directed towards the center) will be: ($T$ represents the tension in the string)

1.	$T+\dfrac{m v^2}{l}$	2.	$T-\dfrac{m v^2}{l}$
3.	zero	4.	$T$

5.

A solid sphere is rotating freely about its axis of symmetry in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass the same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

1.	angular velocity
2.	moment of inertia
3.	rotational kinetic energy
4.	angular momentum

6. A small hole of an area of cross-section $2~\text{mm}^2$ is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height $2~\text{m}.$ Taking $(g = 10~\text{m/s}^2),$

the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly:

1.	$6.4\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}$	2.	$12.6\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}$
3.	$8.9\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}$	4.	$2.23\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}$

7. A rope is wrapped around a hollow cylinder with a mass of $3~\text{kg}$ and a radius of $40~\text{cm}.$ What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of $30~\text N?$

1.	$0.25 ~\text{rad/s}^2 $	2.	$25 ~\text{rad/s}^2 $
3.	$5 ~\text{m/s}^2 $	4.	$25 ~\text{m/s}^2 $

8. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by $2~\text{cm}$ is $U.$ If the spring is stretched by $8~\text{cm},$ the potential energy stored in it will be:

1.	$16U$	2.	$2U$
3.	$4U$	4.	$8U$

9.

A uniform rod of length $200~ \text{cm}$ and mass $500~ \text g$ is balanced on a wedge placed at $40~ \text{cm}$ mark. A mass of $2~\text{kg}$ is suspended from the rod at $20~ \text{cm}$ and another unknown mass $m$ is suspended from the rod at $160~\text{cm}$ mark as shown in the figure. What would be the value of $m$ such that the rod is in equilibrium?
(Take $g=10~( \text {m/s}^2)$

1.	${\dfrac 1 6}~\text{kg}$	2.	${\dfrac 1 {12}}~ \text{kg}$
3.	${\dfrac 1 2}~ \text{kg}$	4.	${\dfrac 1 3}~ \text{kg}$

10.

When an object is shot from the bottom of a long, smooth inclined plane kept at an angle of $60^\circ$ with horizontal, it can travel a distance $x_1$ along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to $30^\circ$ and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel $x_2$ distance. Then $x_1:x_2$ will be:

1.	$1:2\sqrt{3}$	2.	$1:\sqrt{2}$
3.	$\sqrt{2}:1$	4.	$1:\sqrt{3}$

11.

The ratio of the moments of inertia of two spheres, about their diameters, having the same mass and their radii being in the ratio of $1:2$, is:

1.	$2:1$	2.	$4:1$
3.	$1:2$	4.	$1:4$

12. The position of a particle is given by; $\vec r(t)=4t\hat i+2t^2\hat j+5\hat k,$ where $t$ is in seconds and $r$ in metres. Find the magnitude and direction of the velocity $v(t)$, at $t=1~\text{s},$ with respect to the $x\text-$axis.

1.	$4\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},45^\circ$	2.	$4\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},60^\circ$
3.	$3\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},30^\circ$	4.	$3\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},45^\circ$

13. A force $F = (20 + 10 y)$ acts on a particle in the $y$-direction where $F$ is in Newton and $y$ is in metre. The work done by this force to move the particle from $y =0$ to $y =1~\text m$ is:
1. $20~\text{J}$
2. $30~\text{J}$
3. $5~\text{J}$
4. $25~\text{J}$

14.

Body $\mathrm{A}$ of mass $4m$ moving with speed $u$ collides with another body $\mathrm{B}$ of mass $2m$ at rest. The collision is head-on and elastic in nature. After the collision, the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body $\mathrm{A}$ is:

1.	$\dfrac{5}{9}$	2.	$\dfrac{1}{9}$
3.	$\dfrac{8}{9}$	4.	$\dfrac{4}{9}$

15.

A body of mass $1~\text{kg}$ begins to move under the action of a time-dependent force $\vec{F}=\left(2 t \hat{i}+3 t^2 \hat{j}\right) ~\text N,$ where $\hat{i}$ and are unit vectors along the ${X}$ and ${Y}\text-$axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time $(t)?$

1.	$\left(2 t^2+4 t^4\right)~\text W$	2.	$\left(2 t^3+3 t^3\right) ~\text W$
3.	$\left(2 t^3+3 t^5\right) ~\text W$	4.	$\left(2 t^3+3 t^4\right) ~\text W$

16. A football player is moving southward and suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player while turning is:

1.	along south-west	2.	along eastward
3.	along northward	4.	along north-east

17. A particle is released from a height of $S$ above the surface of the earth. At a certain height, its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The distance from the earth's surface and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively:

1.	$\frac{S}{2},\frac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}$	2.	$\frac{S}{4}, \sqrt{\frac{3gS}{2}}$
3.	$\frac{S}{4},\frac{3gS}{2}$	4.	$\frac{S}{4},\frac{\sqrt{3gS}}{3}$

18.

A solid cylinder of mass $2~\text{kg}$ and radius $4~\text{cm}$ is rotating about its axis at the rate of $3~\text{rpm}.$ The torque required to stop after $2\pi$ revolutions is:
1. $2\times 10^6~\text{N-m}$
2. $2\times 10^{-6}~\text{N-m}$
3. $2\times 10^{-3}~\text{N-m}$
4. $12\times 10^{-4}~\text{N-m}$

19. The percentage error in the measurement of $g$ is:
(Given, $g=\frac{4\pi^2L}{T^2},L=(10\pm0.1)~\text{cm, }T=(100\pm1)~\text s$)
1. $2\%$
2. $5\%$
3. $3\%$
4. $7\%$

20. The viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of diameter $1$ mm, falling through a fluid of viscosity $0.8$ Pa-s with a velocity of $2$ m s^–1 is nearly equal to:

1.	$15\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}$	2.	$30\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}$
3.	$1.5\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}$	4.	$20\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}$

21. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is $0.15$. (take $g=10$ ms^–2)

1.	$50$ ms^–2	2.	$1.2$ ms^–2
3.	$150$ ms^–2	4.	$1.5$ ms^–2

22.

The bulk modulus of a spherical object is $B.$ If it is subjected to uniform pressure $P,$ the fractional decrease in radius is:

1.	$\frac{B}{3P}$	2.	$\frac{3P}{B}$
3.	$\frac{P}{3B}$	4.	$\frac{P}{B}$

23. A particle is executing uniform circular motion with velocity $\vec v$ and acceleration $\vec a.$ Which of the following is true?

1.	$\vec v$ is a constant; $\vec a$ is not a constant.
2.	$\vec v$ is not a constant; $\vec a$ is not a constant.
3.	$\vec v$ is a constant; $\vec a$ is a constant.
4.	$\vec v$ is not a constant; $\vec a$ is a constant.

24. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed $v$ and the remaining distance with speed $2v.$ Its average speed is:

1.	$\dfrac{3v}{4}$	2.	$\dfrac{v}{3}$
3.	$\dfrac{2v}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{4v}{3}$

25. Two particles $A$ and $B$ initially at rest, move toward each other under the mutual force of attraction. At an instance when the speed of $A$ is $v$ and speed of $B$ is $3v,$ the speed of the centre-of-mass will be:
1. $2v$
2. zero
3. $v$
4. $4v$

26. A ball is projected from point $A$ with velocity $20$ ms^–1 at an angle $60^\circ$ to the horizontal direction. At the highest point $B$ of the path (as shown in figure), the velocity $v$ (in ms^–1) of the ball will be:

1.	$20$	2.	$10\sqrt3$
3.	zero	4.	$10$

27. The amount of elastic potential energy per unit volume (in SI unit) of a steel wire of length $100~\text{cm}$ to stretch it by $1~\text{mm}$ is:
(given: Young's modulus of the wire = $Y=2.0\times 10^{11}~\text{N/m}^2$)
1. $10^{11}~\text{J/m}^3$
2. $10^{17}~\text{J/m}^3$
3. $10^{7}~\text{J/m}^3$
4. $10^{5}~\text{J/m}^3$

28.

Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at $100~^{\circ}\text{C},$ while the other one is at $0~^{\circ}\text{C}.$ If the two bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is:

1.	$50~^{\circ}\text{C}$
2.	more than $50~^{\circ}\text{C}$
3.	less than $50~^{\circ}\text{C}$ but greater than $0~^{\circ}\text{C}$
4.	$0~^{\circ}\text{C}$

29.

When a body of mass $m$ just begins to slide as shown, match List-I with List-II:

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Normal reaction	(i)	$P$
(b)	Frictional force $(f_s)$	(ii)	$Q$
(c)	Weight $(mg)$	(iii)	$R$
(d)	$mg \mathrm{sin}\theta ~$	(iv)	$S$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

30.

A string is wrapped along the rim of a wheel of the moment of inertia $0.10~\text{kg-m}^2$ and radius $10~\text{cm}.$ If the string is now pulled by a force of $10~\text N,$ then the wheel starts to rotate about its axis from rest. The angular velocity of the wheel after $2~\text s$ will be:

1.	$40~\text{rad/s}$	2.	$80~\text{rad/s}$
3.	$10~\text{rad/s}$	4.	$20~\text{rad/s}$

31.

Two particles of mass $5~\text{kg}$ and $10~\text{kg}$ respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length $1~\text{m}$ with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the $5~\text{kg}$ particle is nearly at a distance of:
1. $50~\text{cm}$
2. $67~\text{cm}$
3. $80~\text{cm}$
4. $33~\text{cm}$

32.

Three liquids of densities $\rho_1,\rho_2$ and $\rho_3$ $(\rho_1>\rho_2>\rho_3)$ having the same value of the surface tension $T,$ rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact $\theta_1,\theta_2$ and $\theta_3$ obey:
1. $ \frac{\pi}{2}>\theta_1>\theta_2>\theta_3 \geq 0 $
2. $ 0 \leq \theta_1<\theta_2<\theta_3<\frac{\pi}{2} $
3. $ \frac{\pi}{2}<\theta_1<\theta_2<\theta_3<\pi $
4. $ \pi>\theta_1>\theta_2>\theta_3>\frac{\pi}{2} $

33. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of $280~\text{ms}^{-1}$ in the direction $30^\circ$ above the horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is:$\left(g=9.8~\text{m/s}^{2}, \sin30^{\circ}=0.5\right)$

1.	$3000~\text{m}$	2.	$2800~\text{m}$
3.	$2000~\text{m}$	4.	$1000~\text{m}$

34.

A barometer is constructed using a liquid (density = $760~\text{kg/m}^3$). What would be the height of the liquid column, when a mercury barometer reads $76~\text{cm}?$
(the density of mercury = $13600~\text{kg/m}^3$)

1.	$1.36~\text m$	2.	$13.6~\text m$
3.	$136~\text m$	4.	$0.76~\text m$

35. The time period of a geostationary satellite is $24~\text{hr}$ at a height $6R_E$ $(R_E$ is the radius of the Earth) from the surface of the earth. The time period of another satellite whose height is $2.5R_E$

from the surface will be:

1.	$6\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}$	2.	$12\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}$
3.	$\frac{24}{2.5}~\text{hr}$	4.	$\frac{12}{2.5}~\text{hr}$

36. Two rods, one made of copper and the other made of steel, of the same length and same cross-sectional area are joined together. The thermal conductivity of copper and steel are $385~\text{Js}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\text{m}^{-1}$ and $50~\text{Js}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}\text{m}^{-1}$ respectively. The free ends of copper and steel are held at $100^\circ \text{C}$ and $0^\circ \text{C}$ respectively. The temperature at the junction is, nearly:

1.	$12^\circ \text{C}$	2.	$50^\circ \text{C}$
3.	$73^\circ \text{C}$	4.	$88.5^\circ \text{C}$

37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine (Carnot heat engine) working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is:

1.	$26.8\%$	2.	$20\%$
3.	$6.25\%$	4.	$12.5\%$

38. The displacement-time $(x\text-t)$ graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle at $t=2$ s is:

1.	$-\dfrac{\pi^2}{16} ~\text{ms}^{-2}$	2.	$\dfrac{\pi^2}{8}~ \text{ms}^{-2}$
3.	$-\dfrac{\pi^2}{8} ~\text{ms}^{-2}$	4.	$\dfrac{\pi^2}{16} ~\text{ms}^{-2}$

39. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is $20~\text{cm}$, the length of the open organ pipe is:

1.	$13.2~\text{cm}$	2.	$8~\text{cm}$
3.	$12.5~\text{cm}$	4.	$16~\text{cm}$

40. From the given functions, identify the function which represents a periodic motion:

1.	$e^{\omega t}$	2.	$\text{log}_e(\omega t)$
3.	$\text{sin}\omega t+ \text{cos}\omega t$	4.	$e^{-\omega t}$

41. The $4^\mathrm{th}$ overtone of a closed organ pipe is the same as that of the $3^\mathrm{rd}$ overtone of an open pipe. The ratio of the length of the closed pipe to the length of the open pipe is:

1.	$8:9$	2.	$9:7$
3.	$9:8$	4.	$7:9$

42.

The length of the string of a musical instrument is $90$ cm and has a fundamental frequency of $120$ Hz. Where should it be pressed to produce a fundamental frequency of $180$ Hz?

1.	$75$ cm	2.	$60$ cm
3.	$45$ cm	4.	$80$ cm

43. A container of volume $200$ cm³ contains $0.2$ mole of hydrogen gas and $0.3$ mole of argon gas. The pressure of the system at temperature $200$ K ($R=8.3$ JK^–1 mol^–1) will be:

1.	$ 6.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} $	2.	$ 6.15 \times 10^4 ~\text{Pa} $
3.	$ 4.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} $	4.	$ 4.15 \times 10^6 ~\text{Pa}$

44.

In a guitar, two strings $A$ and $B$ made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency $6~\text{Hz}$. When tension in $B$ is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to $7~\text{Hz}$. If the frequency of $A$ is $530~\text{Hz}$, the original frequency of $B$ will be:

1.	$524~\text{Hz}$	2.	$536~\text{Hz}$
3.	$537~\text{Hz}$	4.	$523~\text{Hz}$

45.

At what temperature will the $\text{rms}$ speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the earth's atmosphere?
(Given: Mass of oxygen molecule $(m)= 2.76\times 10^{-26}~\text{kg}$, Boltzmann's constant $k_B= 1.38\times10^{-23}~\text{J K}^{-1}$)
1. $2.508\times 10^{4}~\text{K}$
2. $8.360\times 10^{4}~\text{K}$
3. $5.016\times 10^{4}~\text{K}$
4. $1.254\times 10^{4}~\text{K}$

CHEMISTRY

46. Consider the following species:
CN⁺, CN^-, NO and CN
The highest bond order associated with:

1.	NO	2.	CN^–
3.	CN⁺	4.	CN

47.

Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

1.	Molarity	2.	Mole fraction
3.	Weight percentage	4.	Molality

48. To produce 20 moles of ammonia via Haber's process, how many moles of hydrogen molecules are required?

1.	40 mol	2.	10 mol
3.	20 mol	4.	30 mol

49.

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in $ _{71}^{175}Lu$ respectively, are:
1. 104, 71 and 71
2. 71, 71 and 104
3. 175, 104 and 71
4. 71, 104 and 71

50.

If for a certain reaction $∆_{r} H$ is 30 kJ mol^–1 at 450 K, the value of $∆_{r} S$ (in JK^–1 mol^–1) for which the same reaction will be spontaneous at the same temperature is:

1.	70	2.	–33
3.	33	4.	–70

51.

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is :
1. ${HNO}_{3},$ $NO,$ $N_{2},$ ${NH}_{4} Cl$
2. ${HNO}_{3}, NO, {NH}_{4} Cl, N_{2}$
3. ${HNO}_{3}, {NH}_{4} Cl, NO, N_{2}$
4. ${NH}_{4} Cl, N_{2}, NO, {HNO}_{3}$

52. Which p-V curve among the following depicts the highest amount of work done?

1.		2.
3.		4.

53. The correct order of ionic character among CaH₂, BeH₂ and BaH₂ is:

1.	BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂	2.	CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂
3.	BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂	4.	BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

54.

Match the oxide given in Column-I with its property given in Column-II:

	Column-I		Column-II
(i)	${Na}_{2} O$	(a)	Neutral
(ii)	$A l_{2} O_{3}$	(b)	Basic
(iii)	$N_{2} O$	(c)	Acidic
(iv)	$C l_{2} O_{7}$	(d)	Amphoteric

Which of the following options is correct?

	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1.	(b)	(a)	(d)	(c)
2.	(c)	(b)	(a)	(d)
3.	(a)	(d)	(b)	(c)
4.	(b)	(d)	(a)	(c)

55.

Mark the correct order of repulsion among the following according to the VSEPR theory.

1.	lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair >lone pair-bond pair
2.	bond pair-bond pair> lone pair-bond pair>lone pair-lone pair
3.	lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair >lone pair-lone pair
4.	lone pair-lone pair> lone pair-bond pair>bond pair-bond pair

56.

At standard conditions, if the change in the enthalpy for the following reaction is –109 kJ mol^–¹
H_2(g)+Br_2(g) $\to$ 2HBr_(g)and the bond energy of H₂ and Br₂ is 435 kJ mol^–1 and 192 kJ mol^–1respectively, what is the bond energy (in kJ mol^–1) of HBr?

1.	368	2.	736
3.	518	4.	259

57.

4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is:

1.	5f > 6p > 4d > 5p	2.	5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
3.	6p > 5f > 5p > 4d	4.	6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

58. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
1. Basic oxides - $\mathrm{In_2O_3 , K_2O , SnO_2}$
2. Neutral oxides - $\mathrm{CO, NO_2, N_2O}$
3. Acidic oxides - $\mathrm{Mn_2O_7, SO_2, TeO_3}$
4. Amphoteric oxides -$\mathrm{BeO , Ga_2O_3 , GeO }$

59.

For the second-period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

1.	Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
2.	Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
3.	Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4.	Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

60.

In which orbital is the pair of electrons located in the provided carbanion, CH₃C≡C^–?
1. sp³
2. sp²
3. sp
4. 2p

61. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is:
1. Ununoctium
2. Ununennium
3. Unnilennium
4. Unununnium

62.

Boric acid is an acid because its molecule:

1.	contains replaceable H⁺ ion.
2.	gives up a proton.
3.	accepts OH^– from water releasing proton into the solution.
4.	combines with protons from water molecules.

63.

Which pair of ions among the following list do not constitute an iso-electronic pair?
1. Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺
2. Fe²⁺, Mn²⁺
3. O^2–, F^–
4. Na⁺, Mg²⁺

64. Suppose that the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂. If 0.1 mole of XY₂weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g, the atomic weight of X and Y, respectively, will be:

1.	40, 30	2.	60, 40
3.	20, 30	4.	30, 20

65. K_p for the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K.
$\mathrm{CO_{2}(g)\,+\,C(s)\rightarrow \,2CO(g)}$
The value of K_cfor the reaction at the same temperature is:
(Given: R = 0.083 L bar K^–1 mol^–1)

1.	0.36	2.	3.6 × 10^–2
3.	3.6 × 10^–3	4.	3.6

66.

In which of the following options, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of the property indicated against it?

1.	B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
2.	I < Br < F < Cl (increasing negative electron gain enthalpy)
3.	Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
4.	Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ <F^– (increasing ionic size)

67.

Consider the given equilibrium constants:
$\mathrm{{N}_2+3 {H}_2 ~\rightleftharpoons 2 {NH}_3 ~~~~~~~{K}_1 \\ {N}_2+{O}_2 ~~~\rightleftharpoons 2 {NO} ~~~~~~~~{K}_2 \\ {H}_2+\frac{1}{2} {O}_2 \rightleftharpoons {H}_2 {O} ~~~~~~~~{K}_3}$
The equilibrium constant (K) of the following reaction will be:
$2 \mathrm{NH}_3+\frac{5}{2} \mathrm{O}_2 \stackrel{\mathrm{~K}}{\rightleftharpoons} 2 \mathrm{NO}+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$

1.	$ \dfrac{K_{2}K_{3}^{3}}{K_{1}}$	2.	$ \dfrac{K_{2}K_{3}}{K_{1}}$
3.	$ \dfrac{K_{2}^{3}K_{3}}{K_{1}}$	4.	$ \dfrac{K_{3}^{3}K_{1}}{K_{2}}$

68.

The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. Family/group and electronic configuration from which it will belong are:
1. Carbon family and [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d¹⁰7s²7p²
2. Oxygen family and [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁴
3. Nitrogen family and [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁶
4. Halogen family and [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁵

69. The maximum number of water molecules among the following is:
1. 18 mL of water
2. 0.18 g of water
3. 0.00224 L water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
4. 10^-3mol of water

70.

The number of sigma ( $σ$ ) and pi ( $π$ ) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne are:
1. 13 $σ$ bonds and no $π$ bond
2. 10 $σ$ bonds and 3 $π$ bonds
3. 8 $σ$ bonds and 5 $π$ bonds
4. 11 $σ$ bonds and 2 $π$ bonds

71.

Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
1. Magnetic quantum number
2. Azimuthal quantum number
3. Spin quantum number
4. Principal quantum number

72.

The following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :
A)   $60$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} H C l$    $+$ $40$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} N a O H$
B)    $55$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} H C l$    $+$ $45$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} N a O H$
C)   $75$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{5} H C l$    $+$ $25$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{5} N a O H$
D)   $100$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} H C l$    $+$ $100$ $m L$ $\frac{M}{10} N a O H$
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

73. For the given redox reaction, find out the coefficients a, b and c of a balanced equation respectively:
$\mathrm{{a} {Cr}_2 {O}_7^{2-}+{bSO}_3^{2-}({aq})+{c} {H}^{+}({aq})} →$$\mathrm{2 {a} {Cr}^{3+}({aq})+{bSO}_4^{2-}({aq})+\frac{{c}}{2} {H}_2 {O}(\ell)} $

1.	8, 1 and 3	2.	1, 3 and 8
3.	3, 8 and 1	4.	1, 8 and 3

74.

A monochromatic infrared range finder of power 1milli watt emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm in 0.1 second. The number of photons emitted in 0.1 second is:
(Given: h = $6.626 \times 10^{-34} J~s$ , c = $3 \times 10^8 m~s^{-1}, $ Avogadro number = $6.022 \times 10^{23}$)
1. $30 \times 10^{37}$
2. $5 \times 10^{14} $
3. $30 \times 10^{34} $
4. $5 \times 10^{11} $

75.

Which of the following options correctly represents the relationship between $C_p \text { and } C_V$ for one mole of an ideal gas?

1.	$C_P=R C_V $	2.	$C_V=RC_P $
3.	$C_P+C_V=R $	4.	$C_{{P}}-{C}_{{V}}={R}$

76. Determine $\Delta U$ for the process where, one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume:
(Use R = 8.314 J K^–1 mol^–1)

1.	1260 J	2.	2520 J
3.	5040 J	4.	0 J

77.

Which composition will make the basic buffer?

1.	100 mL of 0.1 M HCl+100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
2.	50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH+25 mL of 0.1 M CH₃COOH
3.	100 mL of 0.1 M CH₃COOH+100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
4.	100 mL of 0.1 M HCl+200 mL of 0.1 M NH₄OH

78. The mass of CO₂ produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone, as per the equation given below, is:$\mathrm{CaCO}_3(\mathrm{~s}) \xrightarrow{\text { heat }} \mathrm{CaO}(s)+\mathrm{CO}_2(\mathrm{~g})$

1.	1.32 g	2.	1.12 g
3.	1.76 g	4.	2.64 g

79.

Mark the conditions that favour the maximum product formation in the given reaction.
$A_{2}$ $(g)$ $+$ $B_{2}$ $(g)$ $⇋$ $X_{2}$ $(g),$ $∆_{r} H$ $=$ $- X$ $k$ $J$
1. Low temperature and high pressure.
2. Low temperature and low pressure.
3. High temperature and high pressure.
4. High temperature and low pressure.

80.

The concentration of Ag⁺ ions in a saturated solution of Ag₂C₂O₄is 2.2 × 10^–4 mol L^–1.
The solubility product of Ag₂C₂O₄ is:

1.	2.66×10^–12	2.	4.5×10^–11
3.	5.3×10^–12	4.	2.42×10^–8

81.

The standard electrode potential (E°) values of Al³⁺/ Al, Ag⁺ / Ag, K⁺ / K, and Cr³⁺ / Cr are –1.66 V, 0.80 V, –2.93 V, & –0.79 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of the reducing power of the metals is:

1.	Ag > Cr > Al > K	2.	K > Al > Cr > Ag
3.	K > Al > Ag > Cr	4.	Al > K > Ag > Cr

82.

The IUPAC name of the compound is:
1. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
2. 5-methyl-4-2-en-5-el
3. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

83.

P, Q and R in the above-mentioned sequence of reactions are respectively:

1.
2.
3.
4.

84.

Which of the following is a free radical substitution reaction?
1. Benzene with Br₂/AlCl₃
2. Acetylene with HBr
3. Methane with Br₂/hv
4. Propene with HBr/(C₆H₅COO)₂

85.

The molecule among the following that has the hybridization ${sp}^{2}, {sp}^{2}, sp, and sp$ from left to right atoms is:
1. $HC \equiv C - C \equiv H$
2. ${CH}_{2} = CH - C \equiv CH$
3. ${CH}_{2} = CH - CH = {CH}_{2}$
4. ${CH}_{2} - CH = CH - {CH}_{3}$

86.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the elimination reaction of 2-Bromopentane to form pent-2-ene:
(a) $β$ -Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction

1.	(a), (c), (d)	2.	(b), (c), (d)
3.	(a), (b), (d)	4.	(a), (b), (c)

87.

Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution reaction to form an alkyl bromide B.
B undergoes the Wurtz reaction to give a gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms.
The formula of (A) is:

1.	$CH \equiv CH$	2.	${CH}_{2} = {CH}_{2}$
3.	${CH}_{3} - {CH}_{3}$	4.	${CH}_{4}$

88.

The correct order with respect to –I effect of the substituents is:
(R = alkyl)
1. –NH₂ > –OR < –F
2. –NR₂ < –OR < –F
3. –NH₂ > –OR > –F
4. –NR₂ > –OR > –F

89. Which of the following compounds does not exhibit aromaticity?

1.		2.
3.		4.

90.

The compound that is most difficult to protonate is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

BIOLOGY

91. How many ATP and NADPH₂ are required for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose during Calvin cycle?

1.	18 ATP and 16 NADPH₂
2.	12 ATP and 12 NADPH₂
3.	18 ATP and 12 NADPH₂
4.	12 ATP and 16 NADPH₂

92.

Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as?

1.	Polysome	2.	Polyhedral bodies
3.	Plastidome	4.	Nucleosome

93. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

1.	The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.
2.	The names are derived from Latin and written in italics.
3.	When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.
4.	Biological names can be written in any language.

94. Match List - I with List - II

	Type of flower		Example
(A)	Zygomorphic	(I)	Mustard
(B)	Hypogynous	(II)	Plum
(C)	Perigynous	(III)	Cassia
(D)	Epigynous	(IV)	Cucumber

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	I	II	IV	III
2.	I	II	III	IV
3.	IV	I	III	II
4.	III	I	II	IV

95. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1. Volvox - Starch
2. Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
3. Ulothrix - Mannitol
4. Porphyra - Floridian starch

96. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in:

1.	G₂Phase
2.	M phase
3.	S phase
4.	G₁ phase

97.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?
1. They are heterosporous
2. Male and female gametophytes are free-living
3. Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticles
4. Their seeds are not covered

98.

During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when electrons are lost from the reaction center at PS II, what is the source which replaces these electrons?
1. Oxygen
2. Water
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Light

99.

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

1.	Glutamic Acid	2.	Lysine
3.	Valine	4.	Tyrosine

100.

Match the stages of meiosis in Column I to their characteristic features in Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	pachytene	(1)	pairing of homologous chromosomes
(b)	metaphase I	(2)	terminalisation of chiasmata
(c)	diakinesis	(3)	crossing-over takes place
(d)	zygotene	(4)	chromosomes align at equatorial plate

1. a-3 b-4 c-2 d-1
2. a-1 b-4 c-2 d-3
3. a-2 b-4 c-3 d-1
4. a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1

101. Axile placentation is observed in:
1. China rose, Petunia and Lemon
2. Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
3. China rose, Beans and Lupin
4. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea

102. Cotyledon of maize grain is called?
1. coleorhizae
2. coleoptile
3. scutellum
4. plumule

103.

Concanavalin A is:

1.	a pigment	2.	an alkaloid
3.	an essential oil	4.	a lectin

104.

Choose the mismatched pair of leaf character with its example:
1. Palmately compound - Alstonia
2. Alternate Phyllotaxy - China-rose
3. Leaf tendril - Pea
4. Opposite phyllotaxy - Calotropis

105. Given below are two statements:

I:	In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the extensions of the plasma membrane.
II:	The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA replication and cell wall formation.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

106.

Which, among the following, are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

1.	Pseudomonas	2.	Mycoplasma
3.	Nostoc	4.	Bacillus

107.

Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called?

1.	subsidiary cells	2.	bulliform cells
3.	lenticels	4.	complementary cells

108.

In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crops, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed?

1.	Ethylene	2.	Auxins
3.	Gibberellins	4.	Cytokinins

109.

Casparian strips occur in?

1.	Epidermis	2.	Pericycle
3.	Cortex	4.	Endodermis

110. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

1.	Eight	2.	Four
3.	Six	4.	Two

111. The phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during plant tissue culture is called as :
1. Differentiation
2. Dedifferentiation
3. Redifferentiation
4. Secondary growth

112. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
1. Phaeophyceae only
2. Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
3. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
4. Rhodophyceae only

113. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at:

1.	780 nm	2.	680 nm
3.	700 nm	4.	660 nm

114. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :
1. Equisetum and Salvinia
2. Lycopodium and Selaginella
3. Selaginella and Salvinia
4. Psilotum and Salvinia

115.

In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires?

1.	insects	2.	birds
3.	water	4.	wind

116.

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Puccinia	(i)	Parasitic fungus on mustard
(b)	Neurospora	(ii)	Dead substrates
(c)	Saprophytes	(iii)	Wheat rust
(d)	Albugo	(iv)	Biochemical and Genetic Work

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

117.

Match the organisms in Column-I with habitats in Column-II.

Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Halophiles	(i)	Hot springs
(b)	Thermoacidophiles	(ii)	Aquatic environment
(c)	Methanogens	(iii)	Guts of ruminants
(d)	Cyanobacteria	(iv)	Salty areas

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
2.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

118.

Large, empty colourless cells of the adaxial epidermis along the veins of grass leaves are:

1.	Lenticels	2.	Guard cells
3.	Bundle sheath cells	4.	Bulliform cells

119.

The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:

1.	2, 4-D	2.	IBA
3.	IAA	4.	NAA

120.

Root hairs develop from the region of:

1.	Elongation	2.	Root cap
3.	Meristematic activity	4.	Maturation

121. In the taxonomic categories, which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in the case of animals?

1.	Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
2.	Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
3.	Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
4.	Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species

122. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory pathway through:
1. Acetyl CoA
2. α - Ketoglutaric acid
3. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
4. Pyruvic acid

123.

Select the wrong statement:

1.	The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
2.	Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms
3.	Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
4.	Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

124.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.
2.	Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
3.	Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
4.	Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.

125. Which hormone promotes internode / petiole elongation in deep water rice?

1.	2, 4-D	2.	GA₃
3.	Kinetin	4.	Ethylene

126.

Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
1. Anaphase II
2. Telophase II
3. Metaphase I
4. Metaphase II

127. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The primary $CO_2$ acceptor in $C_4$ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II:	Mesophyll cells in $C_4$ plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

128. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	A flower is defined as a modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason (R):	Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

129.

Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	ETS complex-I	(i)	Cyt bc1
(b)	ETS complex-II	(ii)	Cyt a,a3 and 2 copper centres
(c)	ETS complex-III	(iii)	NADH dehydrogenase
(d)	ETS complex-IV	(iv)	Ubiquinone and FADH₂ dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

130. Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason (R):	Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

131.

Identify the correct set of statements:

(a)	The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
(b)	Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin.
(c)	Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves.
(d)	Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration.
(e)	Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (a), (b), (d), and (e) only
2. (b), (c) only
3. (a), (d) only
4. (b), (c), (d) and (e) only

132.

Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

1.	Endothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
2.	Exothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
3.	Endothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme
4.	Exothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme

133. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆ then what is the formula for maltose ?
1. C₁₂H₂₄O₁₁
2. C₁₂H₂₀O₁₀
3. C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂
4. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

134. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Golgi apparatus?

A:	It is the important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids
B:	It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
C:	It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER
D:	It facilitates the transport of ions
E:	It provides mechanical support

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(B) and (C) only	2.	(A) and (C) only
3.	(A) and (D) only	4.	(D) and (E) only

135. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason (R):	First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

136. Which of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
1. Breathing using lungs
2. Viviparity
3. Warm-blooded nature
4. Ossified endoskeleton

137.

Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
a.	Fibrinogen	i.	Osmotic balance
b.	Globulin	ii.	Blood clotting
c.	Albumin	iii.	Defense mechanism

	a	b	c
1.	iii	ii	i
2.	i	ii	iii
3.	i	iii	ii
4.	ii	iii	i

138. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G ?
1. T : 20%, G : 30%
2. T : 30%, G : 20%
3. T : 30%, G : 30%
4. T : 20%, G : 20%

139.

Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as?
1. fatigue
2. tetanus
3. tonus
4. spasm

140. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During the interphase of mitosis, if the number of chromosomes at G₁ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after the S phase?

1.	4	2.	32
3.	8	4.	16

141.

Normal sleep-wake cycle in a human body is maintained by the secretion of:
1. Thyroid gland
2. Thymus gland
3. Pineal gland
4. Pituitary gland

142. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:

1.	Impulse Transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
2.	The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
3.	Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
4.	Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters.

143. Which of the following are not considered as part of endomembrane system?

A:	Mitochondria
B:	Endoplasmic Reticulum
C:	Chloroplasts
D:	Golgi complex
E:	Peroxisomes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	A, D and E only	2.	B and D only
3.	A, C and E only	4.	A and D only

144.

Air bladder is found in:

1.	Osteichthyes	2.	Aves
3.	Cyclostomata	4.	Chondrichthyes

145. Brain stem of the human brain consists of:
1. Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
2. Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
3. Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora quadrigemina
4. Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus Callosum

146.

Hormones stored and released from neurohypophysis are:
1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
2. Oxytocin and Vasopressin
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
4. Prolactin and Vasopressin

147. According to the sliding filament theory:

1.	Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other to increase the length of the sarcomere.
2.	Length of A–band does not change.
3.	I–band increases in length
4.	The actin filaments slide away from A–band resulting in shortening of sarcomere

148.

The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of forced inspiration.
This includes:

1.	RV; IC (Inspiratory Capacity); EC (Expiratory Capacity); and ERV
2.	RV; ERV; IC and EC
3.	RV; ERV; VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
4.	RV (Residual Volume); ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume); TV (Tidal Volume); and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume)

149. Microtubules are the constituents of?

1.	spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
2.	centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
3.	centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
4.	cilia, flagella and peroxisomes

150. Match List-I with List-II.

	List-I		List-II
A.	Mast cells	I.	Ciliated epithelium
B.	Inner surface of bronchiole	II.	Areolar connective tissue
C.	Blood	III.	Cuboidal epithelium
D.	Tubular parts of nephron	IV.	Specialised connective tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	III	IV	II	I
2.	I	II	IV	III
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	II	I	IV	III

151.

Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Cerebrum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Corpus callosum

152.

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

1.	binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
2.	activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
3.	detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
4.	prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

153.

Select the favorable conditions required for the formation of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli.
1. High pO₂, high pCO₂, less H⁺, higher temperature
2. Low pO₂, low pCO₂, more H⁺, higher temperature
3. High pO₂, low pCO₂, less H⁺, lower temperature
4. Low pO₂ high pCO₂ more H⁺, higher temperature

154.

Choose the correct statement.

1.	All mammals are viviparous
2.	All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins
3.	All reptiles have a three-chambered heart
4.	All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

155. Choose the correct statement about a muscular tissue:

1.	Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found in parallel bundles.
2.	Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells to contract as a unit.
3.	The walls of blood vessels are made up of columnar epithelium.
4.	Smooth muscles are multinucleated and involuntary

156.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine is indicative of Diabetes mellitus:
1. Uremia and Renal Calculi
2. Ketonuria and Glycosuria
3. Renal Calculi and Hyperglycaemia
4. Uremia and Ketonuria

157.

The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for years or months in:

1.	Telophase - I	2.	Diplotene
3.	Diakinesis	4.	Metaphase - I

158.

Terrestrial adaptations necessitated the production of :

1.	Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid
2.	Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid
3.	Lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia and urea
4.	Highly toxic nitrogenous wastes like ammonia and urea

159.

Select the correct option.

1.	There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.
2.	8^th, 9^th and 10^th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
3.	11^th and 12^th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
4.	Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.

160. If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome?

1.	Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently
2.	Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
3.	Lysosomal enzymes will be released into the cytoplasm
4.	Lysosomal enzymes will be more active

161.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

1.	Depolarisation of auricles	2.	Depolarisation of ventricles
3.	Repolarisation of ventricles	4.	Repolarisation of auricles

162.

Graves' disease is caused due to:
1. hyposecretion of thyroid gland
2. hypersecretion of thyroid gland
3. hyposecretion of adrenal gland
4. hypersecretion of adrenal gland

163.

In the case of Poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:
1. Oscula
2. Choanocytes
3. Mesenchymal cells
4. Ostia

164.

Match the following

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Physalia	i.	Pearl oyster
(b)	Limulus	ii.	Portuguese Man of War
(c)	Ancylostoma	iii.	Living fossil
(d)	Pinctada	iv.	Hookworm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	ii	iii	iv	i
2.	i	iv	iii	ii
3.	ii	iii	i	iv
4.	iv	i	iii	ii

165.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is:
1. equal to that in the blood
2. more than that in the blood
3. less than that in the blood
4. less than that of carbon dioxide

166.

Inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscles leads to a symptom of acute chest pain. This disorder of the circulatory system is identified as:

1.	Angina pectoris	2.	Cardiac arrest
3.	Heart failure	4.	Coronary Heart Disease

167.

The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner medullary interstitium is maintained due to:

(i)	Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta
(ii)	Counter current mechanism
(iii)	Selective secretion of HCO₃¯ and hydrogen ions in PCT
(iv)	Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries

1.	Only (ii)	2.	(iii) and (iv)
3.	(i), (ii) and (iii)	4.	(i) and (ii)

168.

Which of the following options correctly represent the characteristic features of phylum Annelida?

1.	Triploblastic, unsegmented body, and bilaterally symmetrical.
2.	Triploblastic, a segmented body, and bilaterally symmetrical.
3.	Triploblastic, flattened body, and acoelomate condition.
4.	Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially symmetrical.

169.

Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

1.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
2.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
3.	Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
4.	Testes → Bidder's canal→ Kidney→ Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct→ Cloaca

170.

Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:

a:	Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
b:	Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c=c bonds.
c:	Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter.
d:	Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
e:	When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (a), (b) and (d) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (a), (d) and (e) only
4. (c), (d) and (e) only

171. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement II:	Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

172.

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

1.	125 beats per minute	2.	50 beats per minute
3.	75 beats per minute	4.	100 beats per minute

173. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	Ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water and allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
Reason (R):	Dilution of filtrate takes place due to efflux of electrolytes in the medullary fluid

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is True, (R) is False
2.	(A) is False, (R) is True
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

174.

Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because?

1.	there is a negative pressure in the lungs
2.	there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
3.	there is a positive intrapleural pressure
4.	pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

175. Select the correct statements:

A:	Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical organisms.
B:	Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external.
C:	In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are not separate.
D:	Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms.
E:	In sponges, fertilization is external and development is direct.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (C) and (D) only	2.	(B), (C) and (D) only
3.	(A) and (E) only	4.	(B) and (D) only

176. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Multipolar neuron	(i)	Somatic neural system
(b)	Bipolar neuron	(ii)	Cerebral cortex
(c)	Myelinated nerve fibre	(iii)	Retina of Eye
(d)	Unmyelinated nerve fibre	(iv)	Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

177.

Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature:

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Tight junctions	(i)	Cement neighboring cells together to form a sheet
(b)	Adhering junctions	(ii)	Transmit information through chemicals to another cell
(c)	Gap junctions	(iii)	Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells
(d)	Synaptic junctions	(iv)	Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells

Select the correct option from the following:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)

178. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans :

(a)	Platelets	(b)	Neutrophils
(c)	Erythrocytes	(d)	Eosinophils
(e)	Monocytes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(c), (a), (b), (e), (d)	2.	(c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
3.	(d), (e), (b), (a), (c)	4.	(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

179. Which of the following statements are correct?

A:	An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B:	ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C:	ANF causes vasodilation.
D:	ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E:	ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	C, D and E only	2.	A and B only
3.	B, C and D only	4.	A, B and E only

180.

Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to:

1.	Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs.
2.	Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma.
3.	Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs.
4.	Absence of antigens A and B in plasma.

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1.	\(T+\dfrac{m v^2}{l}\)	2.	\(T-\dfrac{m v^2}{l}\)
3.	zero	4.	\(T\)

1.	\(6.4\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}\)	2.	\(12.6\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}\)
3.	\(8.9\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}\)	4.	\(2.23\times10^{-6}~\text{m}^{3}/\text{s}\)

1.	\(0.25 ~\text{rad/s}^2 \)	2.	\(25 ~\text{rad/s}^2 \)
3.	\(5 ~\text{m/s}^2 \)	4.	\(25 ~\text{m/s}^2 \)

1.	\({\dfrac 1 6}~\text{kg}\)	2.	\({\dfrac 1 {12}}~ \text{kg}\)
3.	\({\dfrac 1 2}~ \text{kg}\)	4.	\({\dfrac 1 3}~ \text{kg}\)

1.	\(1:2\sqrt{3}\)	2.	\(1:\sqrt{2}\)
3.	\(\sqrt{2}:1\)	4.	\(1:\sqrt{3}\)

1.	\(4\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},45^\circ\)	2.	\(4\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},60^\circ\)
3.	\(3\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},30^\circ\)	4.	\(3\sqrt2~\text{ms}^{-1},45^\circ\)

1.	\(\dfrac{5}{9}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{1}{9}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{8}{9}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{4}{9}\)

1.	\(\left(2 t^2+4 t^4\right)~\text W\)	2.	\(\left(2 t^3+3 t^3\right) ~\text W\)
3.	\(\left(2 t^3+3 t^5\right) ~\text W\)	4.	\(\left(2 t^3+3 t^4\right) ~\text W\)

1.	\(\frac{S}{2},\frac{\sqrt{3gS}}{2}\)	2.	\(\frac{S}{4}, \sqrt{\frac{3gS}{2}}\)
3.	\(\frac{S}{4},\frac{3gS}{2}\)	4.	\(\frac{S}{4},\frac{\sqrt{3gS}}{3}\)

1.	\(15\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}\)	2.	\(30\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}\)
3.	\(1.5\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}\)	4.	\(20\times 10^{-3}~\text{N}\)

1.	\(30\) cm	2.	\(27\) cm
3.	\(24\) cm	4.	\(28\) cm

1.	\(16U\)	2.	\(2U\)
3.	\(4U\)	4.	\(8U\)

1.	\(2:1\)	2.	\(4:1\)
3.	\(1:2\)	4.	\(1:4\)

1.	\(50\) ms^–2	2.	\(1.2\) ms^–2
3.	\(150\) ms^–2	4.	\(1.5\) ms^–2

1.	\(\frac{B}{3P}\)	2.	\(\frac{3P}{B}\)
3.	\(\frac{P}{3B}\)	4.	\(\frac{P}{B}\)

1.	\(\vec v\) is a constant; \(\vec a\) is not a constant.
2.	\(\vec v\) is not a constant; \(\vec a\) is not a constant.
3.	\(\vec v\) is a constant; \(\vec a\) is a constant.
4.	\(\vec v\) is not a constant; \(\vec a\) is a constant.

1.	\(\dfrac{3v}{4}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{v}{3}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{2v}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{4v}{3}\)

1.	\(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
2.	more than \(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
3.	less than \(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\) but greater than \(0~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
4.	\(0~^{\circ}\text{C}\)

1.	\(40~\text{rad/s}\)	2.	\(80~\text{rad/s}\)
3.	\(10~\text{rad/s}\)	4.	\(20~\text{rad/s}\)

1.	\(3000~\text{m}\)	2.	\(2800~\text{m}\)
3.	\(2000~\text{m}\)	4.	\(1000~\text{m}\)

1.	\(1.36~\text m\)	2.	\(13.6~\text m\)
3.	\(136~\text m\)	4.	\(0.76~\text m\)

1.	\(6\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}\)	2.	\(12\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}\)
3.	\(\frac{24}{2.5}~\text{hr}\)	4.	\(\frac{12}{2.5}~\text{hr}\)

1.	\(12^\circ \text{C}\)	2.	\(50^\circ \text{C}\)
3.	\(73^\circ \text{C}\)	4.	\(88.5^\circ \text{C}\)

1.	\(-\dfrac{\pi^2}{16} ~\text{ms}^{-2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{\pi^2}{8}~ \text{ms}^{-2}\)
3.	\(-\dfrac{\pi^2}{8} ~\text{ms}^{-2}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{\pi^2}{16} ~\text{ms}^{-2}\)

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1.	\(13.2~\text{cm}\)	2.	\(8~\text{cm}\)
3.	\(12.5~\text{cm}\)	4.	\(16~\text{cm}\)

1.	\(e^{\omega t}\)	2.	\(\text{log}_e(\omega t)\)
3.	\(\text{sin}\omega t+ \text{cos}\omega t\)	4.	\(e^{-\omega t}\)

1.	\( 6.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} \)	2.	\( 6.15 \times 10^4 ~\text{Pa} \)
3.	\( 4.15 \times 10^5 ~\text{Pa} \)	4.	\( 4.15 \times 10^6 ~\text{Pa}\)

1.	\(524~\text{Hz}\)	2.	\(536~\text{Hz}\)
3.	\(537~\text{Hz}\)	4.	\(523~\text{Hz}\)

1.	\( \dfrac{K_{2}K_{3}^{3}}{K_{1}}\)	2.	\( \dfrac{K_{2}K_{3}}{K_{1}}\)
3.	\( \dfrac{K_{2}^{3}K_{3}}{K_{1}}\)	4.	\( \dfrac{K_{3}^{3}K_{1}}{K_{2}}\)

1.	\(C_P=R C_V \)	2.	\(C_V=RC_P \)
3.	\(C_P+C_V=R \)	4.	\(C_{{P}}-{C}_{{V}}={R}\)

Statement I:	The primary \(CO_2\) acceptor in \(C_4\) plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II:	Mesophyll cells in \(C_4\) plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.