AIIMS 2016 Paper

A bus starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration 8m/s^-2. At the same time, a car travelling with a constant velocity 16 m/s overtakes and passes the bus. After how much time and at what distance, the bus overtakes the car?
1. t = 4 s, d = 64 m
2. t = 5 s, d = 72 m
3. t = 8 s, d = 58 m
4. None of the above

Two vectors A and B have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of A + B is equal to n times the magnitude of A – B, then the angle between A and B is
1

What changes occur, if the monochromatic light used in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light?

1. Only the central fringe is white and all other fringes are observed coloured
2. No fringes are observed
3. All the bright fringes become white
4. All the bright fringes are coloured between violet and red

A lift is moving in upward direction. The total mass of the lift and the passengers is 1600 kg. The variation of the velocity of the lift is as shown in the figure. The tension in the rope at t = 8 s will be

1. 11200 N
2. 16000 N
3. 48000 N
4. 12000 N

Find the acceleration of light pulley is

1. F/m
2. F/2 m
3. F/4 m
4. F/8 m

Consider a planet in some solar system which has a mass double the mass of the earth and density equal to the average density of the earth. An object weighing W on the earth will weight

1. W
2. 2W
3. W/2
4. W at the planet

A boat is sent across a river a velocity of 8 . If the resultant velocity of the boat is 10 , the river is flowing with a velocity of
1. 12.8
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10

Two balls are thrown horizontally from the top of a tower with velocities and in opposite directions at the same time. After how much time, the angle between velocities of balls becomes 90º?
1.
2.
3.
4.

A box is placed on an inclined plane and has to be pushed down. The angle of inclination is
1. equal to the angle of friction
2. more than the angle of friction
3. equal to the angle of repose
4. less than the angle of repose

10.

The escape velocity from the earth is about 11. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and the same mean density as the earth is
1. 22
2. 11
3. 5.5
4. 15.5

11.

A particle having a charge 10 mC is held fixed on a horizontal surface. A block of mass 80 g and having charge stays in equilibrium on the surface at a distance of 3 cm from the first charge. The coefficient of friction between the surface and the block is . Find the range within which the charge on the block may lie
1.
2.
3.
4.

12.

In Young’s double-slit experiment, (slit distance d) monochromatic light of wavelength $\lambda$ is used and the figure pattern observed at a distance L from the slits. The angular position of the bright fringes is:

$1. \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{N \lambda}{d}\right)$

$2. \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\left(N+\frac{1}{2}\right) \lambda}{d}\right)$
$3. \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{N \lambda}{L}\right)$
$4. \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\left(N+\frac{1}{2}\right) \lambda}{L}\right)$

13.

Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centres as given in the figure. The magnitude of the magnetic filed at a distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right angle is

1. $\frac{μ_{0}}{4 π} \frac{m}{d^{3}}$
2. $\frac{μ_{0}}{4 π} \frac{\sqrt{2} M}{d^{3}}$
3. $\frac{μ_{0}}{4 π} \frac{2 \sqrt{2} M}{d^{3}}$
4. $\frac{μ_{0}}{4 π} \frac{2 M}{d^{3}}$

14.

A body is orbiting very close to the earth surface with kinetic energy KE. The energy required to completely escape from it is
1.

4. None of the above

15.

A particle of mass m strikes another particle of same mass of rest. Find the angle between the velocities of particle after the collision, if the collision is elastic.
1.

4. Zero

16.

A composite slab is prepared b pasting two plates of thicknesses L₁ and L₂ and thermal conductivities K₁ and K₂. The slabs have equal cross-sectional area. Find the equivalent conductivity of the slab.

1. $ {K}_{eq}{=}\frac{{L}_{1}{+}{L}_{2}}{\frac{{L}_{1}}{{K}_{1}}{+}\frac{{L}_{2}}{{K}_{2}}}$
2. $ {K}_{eq}{=}\frac{{L}_{1}{+}{L}_{2}}{{K}_{1}{K}_{2}}$
3. $ {K}_{eq}{=}\frac{{L}_{1}}{{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}{+}\frac{{L}_{2}}{{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}$
4. $ {K}_{eq}{=}\frac{{L}_{1}{L}_{2}}{{L}_{1}{+}{L}_{2}}$

17.

A stone is moved in a horizontal circle of radius 4 m by means of a string at a height of 20 m above the ground. The string breaks and the particle files off horizontally, striking the ground 10 m away. The centripetal acceleration during circular motion is
1. 6.25

2.12.5

3. 18.75

4. 25

18.

A smooth wedge A is fitted in a chamber hanging from a fixed ceiling near the earth’s surface. A block B placed at the top of the wedge takes time T to slide down the length of the wedge and the cable supporting the chamber is broken at the same instant, the block will be

1. take a time longer than T to slide down the wedge
2. take a time shorter than T to slide down the wedge
3. remain at the top of the wedge
4. jump of the wedge

19.

A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity

. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is
1.

\frac{1}{2} M ω^{2} L^{2}

{Mω}^{2} L

\frac{1}{4} M ω^{2} L

\frac{1}{2} M ω^{2} L

20.

Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations

and

. The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity of particle 2 is at t = 0
1.

21.

Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q and r having work functions

$Q_{p}=2$ eV,

$Q_{q}=2.5$ eV and

$Q_{r}=3.0$ eV, respectively. A light beam containing wavelength of $550$ nm, $450$ nm and $350$ nm with equal intensities illuminates each of the plates. The correct $(I-V)$ graph for the experiments is:

(Take hc = 1240 eV-nm)

1.		2.
3.		4.

22.

Three long wires, each carrying current i are placed parallel to each other. The distance between I and II is 3d, between II and III is 4 d and between III and I is 5d. Magnetic field at side of wire II is

1. $\frac{5 μ_{0} i}{24 πd}$
2. $\frac{10 μ_{0} i}{24 πd}$
3. $\frac{15 μ_{0} i}{24 πd}$
4. $\frac{20 μ_{0} i}{24 πd}$

23.

A simple pendulum is setup in a trolly which moves to the right with an acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then, the thread of the pendulum in the mean position makes an angle with the vertical
1.

in the forward direction
2.

in the backward direction
3.

in the backward direction
4.

in the forward direction

24.

In the following diagrams, a particle with small charge – q is free to move up or down, but not sideways near a larger fixed charge Q. The small charge is in equilibrium because in the positions shown, the electrical upward force is equal to the weight of the particle. Which statement is true?

1. In figure a, -q is in stable equilibrium.
2. In figure a, -q is in neutral equilibrium.
3. In figure b, -q is in stable equilibrium.
4. Neither in fig(a) nor in fig(b) , q is in stable equilibrium.

25.

A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that the end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from it. Find the length of the image.

1. 2 cm
2. 4 cm
3. 5 cm
4. None of these

26.

If an object is thrown at an angle of 60 º with horizontal, find elevation angle of the object at its highest point as seen from the point of projection.
1.

4. None of the above

27.

A transistor is connected in common emitter (CE) configuration. The collector supply is 8 V and the voltage drop across a resistor of 800 $\Omega$ in the collector circuit is 0.8 V. If the current gain factor ($\alpha$) is 0.96, then the change in base current is

$1. \frac{1}{24} m A\\ 2. \frac{1}{12} m A\\ 3. \frac{1}{6} m A\\ 4. \frac{1}{3} m A$

28.

A straight conductor of uniform cross-section carries a current I. Let S be the specific charge of an electron. The momentum of all the free electron per unit length of the conductor due to their drift velocity only, is
1. I.S
2.

29.

A ray of light travelling in water is incident on its surface open to air. The angle of incidence is θ, which is less than the critical angle. Then there will be,

1. only a reflected ray and no refracted ray
2. only a refracted ray and no reflected ray
3. a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between them would be less than 180 º-2 θ
4. a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between them would be greater than 180 º - 2 θ

30.

Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nuclear (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as shown in the figure. Use this plot to choose the correct choice(s) given below:

1. Fusion of two nuclei with mass number lying in the range of 51<A<100 will release energy
2. Fusion of a nucleus lying in the mass range of 200<A<260 will release energy when broken into two equal fragments
3. Both A and B
4. None of these

31.

What is the refraction index of the material of a plano-convex lens, if the radius of curvature of the convex surface is 10 cm and focal length of the lens is 30 cm?
1. 1/3
2. 1
3. 4/3
4. 2/3

32.

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery and is charged to a potential difference V.
Another capacitor of capacitance 2C is connected to another battery and is charged to potential difference 2V. The charging batteries are now disconnected and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the configuration is
1. Zero
2.

33.

The n rows each containing m cells in series are joined in parallel. Maximum current is taken from this combination across an external resistance of 3 Ω. If the total number of cells used is 24 and internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 Ω, then

1.  m = 8, n = 3
2.  m = 6, n = 4
3.  m = 12, n = 2
4.  m = 2, n = 12

34.

If the intensities of the two interfering beams in Young’s double-slit experiment are

and

then the contrast between the maximum and minimum intensities are good when
1.

is large
2.

is small
3. Either

is zero
4.

35.

A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is focused on a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye lens. If the object makes an angle of 2 º at the objective, then the angular width of the image is

1. 10 º
2.  24 º
3.  50 º
4.  48 º

36.

A semiconductor has an electron concentration of per  and a hole concentration of  per . The electron mobility is 25000   and the hole mobility is 100  . Then,
1.  the semiconductor is n-type
2.  the conductivity is 320 m mho
3.  Both (a) and (b)
4.  None of the above

37.

An ammeter and a voltmeter are joined in series to a cell. Their readings are A and V respectively. A resistance is now joined in parallel with the voltmeter. Then,

1.  Both A and V will increase
2.  Both A and V will decrease
3.  A will decrease, V will increase
4.  A will increase, V will decrease

38.

Three identical capacitors A, B and C are charged to the same potential and then made to discharge through three resistance . Their potential differences (V) are plotted against time t, giving the curves 1, 2 and 3. Choose the incorrect option.

1.
2.
3.
4. None of the above.

39.

Diffraction pattern of a single slit consists of a central bright band which is:

1.  wide, and is flanked by alternate dark and bright bands of decreasing intensity
2.  narrow, and is flanked by alternate dark and bright bands of equal intensity
3.  wide, and is flanked by alternate dark and bright bands of equal intensity
4.  narrow and is flanked by alternate-dark and bright bands of decreasing intensity

40.

The logic circuit as shown below has the input waveforms A and B as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.

1.
2.
3.
4.

41.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Linear momentum of a body changes even when it is moving uniformly in a circle.
Reason (R) In uniform circular motion velocity remains constant.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

42.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Conductors having equal positive charge and volume, must also have same potential.
Reason (R) Potential depends only on charge and volume of conductor.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

43.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Soldiers are asked to break steps while crossing the bridge.

Reason (R) The frequency of matching may be equal to the natural frequency of bridge and may lead to resonance which can break the bridge.

1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

44.

Assertion (A) The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10^-15 m

Reason (R) In α-particles scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for α-particles is $\approx 10^{-15} \mathrm{~m}$
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

45.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) A ladder is more apt to slip, when you are high up on it, then when you just begin to climb.

Reason (R) At the high up on a ladder, the torque is large and on climbing up the torque is small.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

46.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) In an adiabatic process change in internal energy of a gas in equal to work done on or by the gas in the process.

Reason (R) Temperature of gas remains constant in an adiabatic process.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

47.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an AC circuit. In this circuit, the current and the potential difference across the resistance logs behind potential difference across the inductance by an angle

Reason (R) In L-R circuit, voltage leads the current by phase angle which depends on the value of inductance and resistance both.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

48.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) The phenomenon of X-ray production is basically inverse of the photoelectric effect.
Reason (R) X-rays are electromagnetic waves.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

49.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in L-C-R circuit, emf leads the current.
Reason (R) The phase angle is the angle between the alternation emf and alternation current of the circuit.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

50.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) A brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilly day.
Reason (R) The thermal conductivity of brass is less than that of wood.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

51.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying solenoid is half of that at the centre.

Reason (R) If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.

1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

52.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces.
Reason (R) This force is due to the induced charge on the conducting surface which is at zero potential.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

53.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) If a point charge q is placed in front of an infinite grounded conducting plane surface, the point charge will experience a force.
Reason (R) This force is due to the induced charge on the conducting surface which is at zero potential.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

54.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed, then the time period of revolution of the α-particle is double than that of proton.
Reason (R) In a magnetic field, the time period of revolution of a charged particle is directly proportional to mass.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

55.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for violet colour.
Reason (R) The wavelength of violet light is greater than the light of other colurs.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

56.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Electric conduction in gasses is possible at normal pressure.
Reason (R) The electric conduction in gases depends only upon the potential difference between the electrodes.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

57.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) The coil is bound over the metallic frame in moving coil galvanometer.
Reason (R) The metallic frame helps in making steady deflection without any oscillation.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false

58.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) The focal length of lens does not change, when red light is replaced by blue light.
Reason (R) The focal length of lens does not depends on colour of light used.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

59.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the coils is maximum.
Reason (R) Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

60.

Direction: In each of the following questions, a Statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding Statement of reason.
Assertion (A) Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum has many lines.
Reason (R) Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.
1.  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3.  Assertion is true but reason is false
4.  Both assertion and reason are false

61.

In which of the following sets the order of boiling points are incorrect?
1.

62.

In a thermodynamics process helium gas obeys the law

constant. The heat given to n moles of He in order to raise the temperature from T to 2T is

1.  8 RT
2.  4 RT
3. 16 RT
4.  Zero

63.

The correct stability order for the following species is

64.

An allylide on hydrolysis gives allylene. The alkaline earth metal cation of allylide dissolves in dry ether in the presence of alkyl halide to form Grignard reagent. The allylide is
1.

65.

In the above reaction a unknown component X on hydrolysis gives Y and methane gas identify X and Y.
1.

4. None of the above

66.

Arrange the following in the order of increasing value of the equilibrium constant for hydration,

(smallest value first)

67.

An alcohol gave Lucas test in about 5 minutes. When the alcohol was treated with hot concentrated H₂SO₄, it gave an alkene of molecular formula C₄H₈ which on ozonolysis gave C₂H₄O. The structure of the alcohol is:
1. CH₃CH=CHCH₂CH₃
2. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH
3. CH₃CHOHCH₂CH₃
4. (CH₃)₃C-OH

68.

The true statement for the acids of phosphorus,

and

is

1. the order of their acidity is

2.  all of them are reducing in nature
3.  all of them are tribasic acids
4.  the geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three

69.

The mass of potassium dichromate crystals required to oxidize 750 of 0.6 M Mohr’s salt solution is (Given, molar mass, potassium dichromate = 294, Mohr’s salt = 392)
1.  0.39 g
2.  0.37 g
3.  22.05 g
4.  2.2 g

70.

A quantity of hydrogen gas occupies a volume of 30.0 mL at a certain temperature and pressure. What volume would half this mass of hydrogen occupy at triple the absolute temperature if the pressure were one ninth that of the original gas?
1. 270 mL
2. 90 mL
3. 405 mL
4. 137 mL

71.

Choose the incorrect statement among the following.
1. The chemistry of different lanthanoids is very similar
2. 4f and 5f-orbitals are equally shielded
3. D-block element show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves
4. La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals.

72.

The correct set of reagents for the following conversion is

73.

The correct order of increasing C — O bond length of CO, CO₃^2- and CO₂ is:
1. CO₃^2- < CO₂ < CO
2. CO₂ < CO₃^2- < CO
3. CO < CO₃^2- < CO₂
4. CO < CO₂ < CO₃^2-

74.

The Zone refining process of metals is based on the principle of
1. excess noble character of the liquid metal than that of impurity
2. lower melting point of the impurity than that of pure metal
3. greater solubility of impure metal than that of impurity
4. greater solubility of the impurities in the molten state than in the solid

75.

Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄was prepared in 2 L of solution.

1L of mixture X + excess

Number of moles of Y and Z are

1.  0.03, 0.02
2.  0.01, 0.02
3.  0.01, 0.01
4.  0.02, 0.02

76.

One mole of a compound AD reacts with one mole of a compound CD according to the equation AB(g) + CD(g) ⇌ AD(g) + CB(g), when equilibrium had been established it was found that $\frac {3}{4}$ mole each of reactants AB and CD had been converted to AD and CB. There is no change in volume. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is:
1.  6/15
2.  1/9
3.  19/5
4. 9

77.

In a gas lighter, mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy by using crystals of barium titanate. Barium titanate is
1. piezoelectric but not ferroelectric
2. both piezoelectric as well as ferroelectric
3. ferroelectric
4. neither ferroelectric nor piezoelectric

78.

For

order reaction

Graph between log (rate) against log

is of the type

Lines P, Q, R, S are for the order

1.  P-0, Q-1, R-2, S-3
2.  P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-0
3.  P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-0
4.  P-0, Q-3, R-2, S-1

79.

When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to hold them together?

1.  Van der Vaals’ forces
2.  Hydrogen bond formation
3.  Covalent attraction
4.  lonic interaction

80.

In the reaction,

. If we start with 10 M of A, then after one natural life time, concentration of A decreased to

1.  5 m
2.  2.5 m
3.

81.

A mixture of which pair of species react with water to produce a pure colourless gas that gives white fumes with HCl?

1.  Calcium hydride and calcium carbide
2.  Calcium carbide and aluminium nitride
3.  Magnesium nitride and calcium nitride
4.  Calcium phosphide and calcium cyanamide

82.

Photoelectrons are liberated by ultraviolet light of wavelength 3000 Å from a metallic surface for which the photoelectric threshold is 4000 Å. The de-Broglie wavelength of electrons emitted with maximum kinetic energy is

1.  1.2 nm
2.  3.215 nm
3.  7.28 Å
4.  1.65 Å

83.

The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l
1) n = 4, l = 1
2) n = 4, l = 0
3) n = 3, l = 2
4) n = 3, l =1
can be placed in the order of increasing energy as
1.
2.
3.
4.

84.

At a moderate pressure, the van der Waals’ equation is written as

The compressibility factor is equal to
1.

85.

For the reaction,

the following mechanism has been given

Hence, rate law is
1.

86.

Give the correct basicity order of the following compound

I.
II.	CH₃CH₂NH₂
III.	(CH₃)₂NH
IV.	CH₃CONH₂

87.

Arrange the elements Se, Cl, and S in increasing order of ionisation energy.
1. Se > S > Cl
2. Se < S < Cl
3. Se < S > Cl
4. None of the above

88.

The polymer used as packaging material in orthopaedic devices and for controlled drug release is

1.  Kevlar
2.  PHBV
3.  Glyptal
4.  Bakelite

89.

Amongst the following the lowest degree of paramagnetism pjer mole of the compound at 298 K will be shown by

1.

90.

The correct order of the properties indicated is:
1. O^2– > Ne > Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺(Size)
2. N^3– > O^2– < F^–< Na⁺(Nuclear charge)
3. Li > Be > B > C (Electron gain enthalpy)
4. Li < Na > K > Cs (IE₁)

91.

Which has the highest boiling point?
1.

92.

Calculate the number of a and β particles in the following change.

1.  α-4, β-3
2.  α-2, β-3
3.  α-5, β-3
4.  α-7, β-4

93.

Ionising radiation is

1.  radiation that only interacts with ions
2.  the same as a proton
3.  a neutron that has acquired a charge, thus forming an ion
4.  high energy radiation that removes electrons from atoms or molecules

94.

The freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 g of acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by 0.45 º C. The degree of association of acetic acid in benzene is (Assume acetic acid dimerises in benzene and

for benzene = 5.12 K kg

)

of acetic acid = 113.78

1. 94.5%
2. 4.9%
3. 78.2%
4. 100%

95.

Calculate the degree of hydrolysis and pH of 0.02 M ammonium cyanide

at 298 K.

1.  8.2
2.  3.2
3.  9.3
4.  3.9

96.

150 mL of 0.5 N nitric acid solution at 25.35 º C was mixed with 150 mL of 0.5 NJ sodium hydroxide solution at the same temperature. The final temperature was recorded to be 28.77 º C. Heat of neutralization of nitric acid with sodium hydroxide

1.  -12.64 kcal
2.  -11.98 kcal
3.  -13.68 kcal
4.  -12.68 kcal

97.

Calculate the $\Delta G^{o}$ value for the following reaction:
CO(g) + 1/2 O₂ (g)→ CO₂ (g) ΔH^o= –282.84 kJ
(Given, $S_{CO_{2}}^{o}$=213.8 J/K/mol_,S^o_CO=197.9 J/K/mol and $S_{O_2}^{o}$=205.8 J/K/mol, T = 298 K)

1. -157.33 kJ
2. +201.033 kJ
3. -257.033 kJ
4. +257.033 kJ

98.

The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283×10^-3 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.15

at 25 º C. At infinite dilution value is 390.7

. Calculate the degree of ionisation and ionisation constant of acetic acid.
1.

99.

A sample of a mixture of

weighing 4.22 g was treated to precipitate all the Ca as

. This

is heated and quantitatively converted into 0.959 g of CaO. Calculate the percentage of

in the mixture. (Atomic mass of Ca = 40, O = 16, C = 12 and Cl = 35.5)

1.  55.28%
2.  37.3%
3.  45.00%
4.  49.01%

100.

Density of equilibrium mixture of

and

at 1 atm and 384 K is 1.84

. Equilibrium constant of the following reaction is

1.  1.98 atm
2.  2.09 atm
3.  2.36 atm
4.  1.48 atm

101.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) At the end of electrolysis using platinum electrodes, an aqueous solution of turns colourless.

Reason (R)During the electrolysis

changes to Cu

during electrolysis.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true bu Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

102.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) Manganese has a less favorable electron affinity than its neighbors in either side.

Reason (R)The magnitude of an elements electron affinity depends on the elements valence shell electronic configuration.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true bu Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

103.

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A):	Adding inert gas to the dissociation equilibrium of N₂O₄ at constant temperature and pressure increases the dissociation.
Reason (R):	Due to the addition of inert gas molar concentration of reactants and products decreases.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

104.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) When

is continuously bubbled through lime water a precipitate is formed which later dissolves.

Reason (R)Calcium carbonate is initially formed which reacts further with carbon dioxide to form calcium bicarbonate.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true bu Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

105.

Reason (R)There is a single bond between O and O in superoxides.

106.

Assertion (A):	pH value of the HCl solution is less than that of acetic acid of the same concentration.
Reason (R):	In equimolar solutions, the number of titratable protons present in HCl is less than that present in acetic acid.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

107.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) Nitration of salicyclic acid gives picric acid by elimination of group

Reason (R)OH group is strongly activating group hence,

reaction takes place at o-and p-positions.

108.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) Sulphanilic acid migrates to anode in basic medium and to cathode in acid medium.

Reason (R)Sulphanilic acid is a dipolar ion and exists as cation in acidic medium and as an anion in basic medium.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true bu Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

109.

Reason (R)They have strong interaction with the dispersion medium.

110.

Assertion (A):	The order of stability of carbanion is (C₆H₅)₃C^- > C₆H₅CH₂^- > CH₃^- > (CH₃)₂CH^- .
Reason (R):	The stability of carbanions is influenced by both resonance and inductive effects.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

111.

Reason (R) Cs is the most electropositive and F is the most electronegative.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true bu Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

112.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) Acyl halide are more reactive than acid substance amide toward nucleophilic substitution.

Reason (R)

are better leaving group that

113.

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A):	The enthalpy of both graphite and diamond is taken to be zero, being elementary substances.
Reason (R):	The enthalpy of the formation of an elementary substance in any state is taken as zero.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

114.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A) Critical temperature of

is 304 K, it cannot be liquefied above 304 K.
Reason (R) At a certain temperature,

115.

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A):	Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol toward nucleophilic attack.
Reason (R):	The overall effect of –I and + R effect of the phenyl group decreases the electron density on the the carbon atom of a group in benzaldehyde.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

116.

Assertion (A):	The freezing point of 0.05 M urea solution is different from that of 0.05 M sodium chloride solution.
Reason (R):	The depression in the freezing point is directly proportional to the number of species present in the solution.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

117.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A) When acetamide reacts with NaOH and

, methyl amine is formed.
Reason (R) The reaction occurs through intermediate formation of isocyanate.

118.

Assertion (A):	[Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is coloured, while [Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless.
Reason (R):	d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺ because no d-electron is present, while it is possible for Ti³⁺ as it has a d¹ system.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True, but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

119.

Direction:In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.
Assertion (A) In an atom, the velocity of an electron in the higher orbits keeps on decreasing.
Reason (R) Velocity of electrons is inversely proportional to the radius of the orbit.

120.

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choice.

Assertion (A):	After splitting of d-orbitals during complex formation, the orbitals form two sets of orbitals $t_{2g}$and $e_{g}$octahedral field.
Reason (R):	Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in the case of strong-field ligands such as CN^-.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

121.

Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a

1.  geographic barrier
2.  barrier to gene flow
3.  change in chromosome number
4.  barrier to mating

122.

Read the following statements regarding archaebacteria and Choose the incorrect statement.
I. Their cell wall lacks peptidoglycan.
II. They contain membrane-bound organelles.
III. These have distinct ribosomal RNA sequence.
IV. Lipid in the cell membrane of archaebacteria has a different structure than those in all other organisms.

1.  I and II
2.  Only II
3.  Only IV
4.  III and IV

123.

In which among the following animals, retrogressive metamorphosis is found?

1.  Vertebrata
2.  Urochordata
3.  Invertebrates
4.  Chordates

124.

In mammals, the teeth are
I. only two sets, present throughout life.
II. embedded in the socket of the jaw bones.
III. Different types.
These conditions are respectively referred as

1.  diphyodont, heterodont and thecodont
2.  diphyodont, thecodont and heterodont
3.  thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont
4.  thecodont, heterodont and diphyodont

125.

Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and choose the incorrect option.

1.  Gametophytic phase is dominant in life cycle
2.  Fertilization takes place in presence of water.
3.  Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce sporophyte.
4.  Sporophyte is physiologically dependent on gametophyte

126.

A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a culture containing 10⁵ cells/mL is grown for 175 minutes, what will be the cell concentration/mL after 175 minutes?
1.
2.
3.
4.

127.

Artificial taxonomy is connected with the

1.  use of habit and habitat of organisms
2.  based on the presence or absence of chemicals in cells or tissues
3.  based on morphological traits
4.  based on evolutionary history of a species.

128.

Identify the type of root given in the figure, from the given options.

1.  A – Fusiform, radish; B – Napiform, turmeric; C – Tuberous, sweet potato
2.  A – Conical, turnip; B – Nodulated, sweet potato; C – Tuberous, Curcuma amada
3.  A – Conical, carrot; B – Tuberous, sweet potato; C – Fasciculated, Dahlia
4.  A – Napiform, carrot; B – Nodulated, Tamarind; C – Tuberous, turmeric

129.

Dikaryotisation

in Agaricus is brought about by

1.  Clamp connections
2.  Somatogamay between two hyphae of different strains
3.  Both (a) and (b) are correct
4.  Basidiospores

130.

In the process of apical dominance, lateral buds are unable to grow in the presence of apical bud. This is due to

1.  less amount of cytokinins in lateral buds
2.  more amount of cytokinins in lateral buds
3.  less amount of auxin in lateral buds.
4.  more amount of auxin in lateral buds

131.

Match the following columns.

1.  A-5 B-3 C-4 D-1 E-2
2.  A-5 B-2 C-1 D-4 E-3
3.  A-2 B-5 C-4 D-1 E-2
4.  A-5 B-3 C-4 D-2 E-1

132.

Identify the correct matched pair.

1.  Segregation – Metaphase II
2.  Significance of meiosis – Production or genetically similar cells
3.  Exchange of genetic material – Diakinesis
4.  Anaphase II of meiosis – Centromeric division.

133.

The cranial nerves which originate from the medulla oblongata are

1.  IX, X, XI and XII
2.  III, VII and IX
3.  VII, VIII, IX and X
4.  VIII, IX, X, XI and XII

134.

The value of osmotic potential of an electrolyte is always

1.  More than non – electrolyte
2.  Less than non – electrolyte
3.  Same as non – electrolyte
4.  None of these

135.

Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease?

1.  Vitamin-A - Fat soluble – Night blindness
2.  Vitamin-K – Fat soluble – beri – beri
3.  Vitamin-A – Fat soluble – beri – beri
4.  Vitamin-K – Water soluble – Pellagra

136.

Suppose, evolution on earth had occurred in such a way that there are 96 amino acids instead of 20. DNA has 12 different types of bases and DNA synthesis occurs in the same way as today. The minimum number of bases per DNA codon would be

1.  12
2.  8
3.  2
4.  3

137.

Fertilisation is internal is Spirogyra. Where would you get zygospores, if 3 filaments are conjugating by scalariform conjugation?

1.  Lateral filaments
2.  Central filaments
3.  Centra filament and both lateral filaments
4.  Either central or lateral filament

138.

Which one is an incorrect match?

1.  Myopia - Biconvex lens
2.  Olfactory - Smell
3.  Algerireceptor - Pain
4.  Organ of corti cells - Sensory and Supporting

139.

The preparation and flowering of leaves of tea and tobacco is due to the activities of

1.  Bacillus subtilis
2.  Bacillus megatherium
3.  Streptococcus lactis
4. Acetobacter aceti

140.

Inflorescence of which one of the following sets completely develop into composite fruits?

1.  Spike, corymb, hypanthodium
2.  Spike, female catkin, hypanthodium
3.  Unbel, catkin, spadix
4.  Female catkin, corymb, spike

141.

The ploidy of bread wheat is

1.  4 n
2.  6 n
3.  2 n
4.  8 n

142.

The sequence of development during the formation of the endosperm is

1. Archesporium

Megaspore mother cell

Megaspore

Embryo sac
2. Archesporium

Megaspore

Megaspore mother cell

Embryo sac
3. Megaspore

Archesporium

Megaspore

Mother cell

Embroyo sac
4. Megaspore mother cell

spore mother cell

Embryo spore mother cell

Embryo sac

143.

The graph shows two types of population growth curve. A is exponential and B is logistic.

Which one of the following growth model considered as more realistic one?

1.  Exponential growth curve
2.  Logistic growth curve
3.  Both the growth curves
4.  None of the above

144.

In Cycas

1.  ovule and microsporangia are present in same sporophyll
2.  micro and megasporophyllus are present in same cone
3.  male cone and megasporophylls are borne on the same plant
4.  male cone and megasporophylls are borne on separate individual plants.

145.

During pregnancy, which of the following is secreted through the urine of mother?

1.  Progesterone
2.  Luteinizing hormone
3.  FSH
4.  Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone

146.

In callus culture, shoots can be induced by the supply of

1.  auxin and no cytokinin
2.  higher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
3.  Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
4.  Both auxin and cytokinin in equal amounts

147.

Which of the following is the action of insulin?

1.  Blood glucose level increases by hydrolyzing glycogen in liver
2.  Decreases blood sugar level by forming glycogen
3.  Increase blood glucose level by stimulating glucagon production
4.  Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular uptake of glucose

148.

Radioactive thymidine is fed to cells about to enter S-phase. It will make radioactive

1.  euchromatin
2.  heterochromatin
3.  Both (a) and (b)
4.  Neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin

149.

Which of the following is incorrect about the light reactions of photosynthesis?

1.   are the reaction centres of PS-I and PS-II respectively
2.  Light energy provides energy for the photolysis of water through excitation of the reaction centre of PS-II
3.  NADPH is not produced in cyclic electrons transport in light reactions
4.  Reactions of the two photosystems are needed for the reduction of NADP

150.

The following are found in Taenia solium, which one is the correct sequence?

1.  Oncosphere, hexacanth, cysticercus, matured, proglottid, gravid
2.  Matured proglottid, cysticercus, gravid, onchosphere, hexacauth
3.  Hexacanth, cysticercus, gravid, onchosphere mature proglottid
4.  Gravid, onchosphere, cysticercus, hexacanth, mature proglottid

151.

After examining the blood groups of husband and wife, the doctor advised them not to have more than one child. The blood groups of the couple are likely to be

1. male

Which one of the following pairs is the matching pair of the part and the hormone it secretes?

1.  Thyroid Gland - Secretin
2.  Alpha cells of Pancreas - Glucagon
3.  Adrenal Medulla of adrenal Gland - Thyroid
4.  Intestinal Mucosa of duodenum and jejunum - Epinephrine

153.

Consider the diagram given below.

Parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F respectively indicate.

1.  Sacrum, ilium, pubis, femur, tibia and fibula
2.  ilium, pubis, sacrum, femur, fibula and tibia
3.  Sacrum, pubis, ilium, femur, tibia and fibula
4.  ilium, sacrum, pubis, femur, tibia and fibula

154.

In man, in which part of the uriniferous tubule reabsorption of glucose occurs?

1.  Collecting tube
2.  Henle’s loop
3.  Distal convoluted tubule
4.  Proximal convoluted tubule

155.

The volume of anatomically dead space, air in the lung so human beings is normally

1.  230 mL
2.  210 mL
3.  190 mL
4.  150 mL

156.

Tyloses are balloon-like outgrowths in the lumen of secondary xylem tracheids and vessel of duramen region. These are actually

1.  outgrowth of vessels of xylem
2.  ingrowth of vessels
3.  ingrowth of xylem parenchyma
4.  swelling of xylem fibres for no function

157.

Which of the following sets do not have homologous organs?

1.  Mouthparts of cockroach and butterfly
2.  Wings of butterfly and bird
3.  Wings of mosquito and butterfly
4.  Forelegs of horse and paddies of whale

158.

The fluid which is rich in calcium fibrinolysis and acid phosphatase and contributes about 30% of the total volume of semen, is released by

1.  Cowper’s glands
2.  prostate gland
3.  seminal vesicles
4.  epididymis

159.

Haemocyanin, the blue colouring pigment of molluscan blood contains

1.  magnesium
2.  copper
3.  iron
4.  manganese

160.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) A genetic probe is helpful in the detection of a specific DNA sequence.
Reason (R) Genetic probe is a radiolabelled C-DNA, which has a complementary base sequence, to DNA fragment which is to be detected.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

161.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A)Inhibition or death of one organism by another through the production of some byproduct is known as antibiosis.
Reason (R) Antibiosis is a type of negative interaction.

162.

163.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Non-sense codon is responsible for termination of the peptide chain.
Reason (R) Non - sense codons are not recognized by tRNA.

164.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A)The rate of decomposition of detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.
Reason (R) It happen due to immobilization of nutrients.

165.

Direction: In each of the statement of the following question of Assertion is given followed by the corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) CAM plants lack structural compartment atom of the leaf as found in

plants.
Reason (R) Stomata of CAM plants are open during the day.

166.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) From evolutionary point of view, human gestation period is believed to be shortening.
Reason (R) One major evolutionary trend in human has been larger head undergoing relatively faster growth rate in the foetal stage.

167.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) A chemical substance fertilizin is founded in the egg of animals.
Reason (R) It helps in the maturation of embryo after fertilization.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2.  Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

168.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Dipnoi subclass of Pisces are rare class which has an evolutionary link between Pisces and Amphibia.
Reason (R) The presence of lungs in Protopterus make it able to breathe in the air.

169.

1.  Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3.  Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4.  Both Assertion and Reason are false

170.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Polymorphism is a specialty of coelenterates where alternation in generation occurs.
Reason (R) It helps in species dispersal.

171.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) IgM is a type of immunoglobulins, which cannot cross the placenta.
Reason (R) IgM is a pentamer immunoglobulin joined by J-chain.

172.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Penicillin is obtained from Penicillium griseofulvum.
Reason (R) Terramycin is obtained from Staphylococcus griesus.

173.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Bidder canal is associated with the conduction of sperms of frog.
Reason (R) These canals are the part of frog’s reproduction system and connect to the cloaca of frog.

174.

Direction: In each of the following questions statement of Assertion is given followed by corresponding statement of Reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
Assertion (A) Large intestine also shows the presence of villi, like small intestine.
Reason (R) Absorption of water, some salts and drugs are done by inner wall of large intestine.

175.