NEET 2013 Exam Paper

Physics

1.

Which of the following is the largest constituent of the membrane of the erythrocyte in human beings and is also responsible for performing most of the functions of the membrane?
1. Protein
2. Lipid
3. Glycolipid
4. Glycoprotein

2.

Prokaryotic mesosomes do not help in:
1. Cell wall formation
2. DNA replication
3. Respiration
4. Photosynthesis

3.

The outer membrane of the nucleus:
I. is continuous with the Endoplasmic reticulum
II. does not bear ribosomes.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

4.

All of the following are nucleosides, except:

1.	Adenosine	2.	Cytosine
3.	Guanosine	4.	Uridine

5.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the structure of proteins:

1.	They are heteropolymers containing strings of amino acids.
2.	The first amino acid in the primary structure is the N-terminus amino acid
3.	Only left helices are observed in proteins
4.	Tertiary structure is absolutely essential for many biologic functions of the proteins

6.

The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:
1. appearance of recombination nodules
2. crossing over
3. dissolution of synaptonemal complex
4. appearance of chiasmata

7.

In an average composition of a cell, the maximum % of total cellular mass [after water and protein] is constituted by:
1. Carbohydrates
2. Lipid
3. Nucleic acids
4. Ions

8.

Identify the option, where all the columns are not matched correctly:

1.	Abrin	Secondary metabolite	Drug
2.	GLUT-4	Protein	Transport carrier
3.	Lecithin	Phospholipid	Cell membrane
4.	Thymidylic Acid	Nucleotide	DNA

9.

A feature unique to prokaryotes would be:
1. A cell wall not made up of cellulose
2. An extrachromosomal plasmid DNA
3. A cell membrane of peptidoglycan
4. Presence of inclusions

10.

The six most common atoms in organic molecules are:

1.	Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Helium, Calcium and Sulphur
2.	Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Calcium, Magnesium and Sulphur
3.	Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Sulphur, Phosphorous and Magnesium
4.	Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Sulphur

11.

The following cell undergoing mitosis, is at:

1.	Early prophase	2.	Late prophase
3.	Transition to metaphase	4.	Early metaphase

12.

Identify the correct statement regarding the part of cell, the structure of which is shown in the given diagram:

1. It is not found in the plant cells
2. It serves to provide an attachment with a surface for a bacterial cell
3. The structure is made of a protein called flagellin
4. It can be used for movement by a eukaryotic cell

13.

Select the mismatch:

Column I		Column II
1.	Gas vacuoles	Green bacteria Cells
2.	Large central vacuoles	Animal cells
3.	Protists	Eukaryotes
4.	Methanogens	Prokaryotes

14.

Select the wrong statement:

1.	Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
2.	Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in the motility of bacterial cells
3.	Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
4.	Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism

15.

Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

1. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
2. It is a membrane-bound structure.
3. It takes part in spindle formation.
4. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

16.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Cellulose is a polysaccharide
2. Uracil is a pyrimidine
3. Glycine is a sulphur-containing amino acid
4. Sucrose is a disaccharide

17.

Arrange the following events of meiosis in a correct sequence:
I. Crossing over
II. Synapsis
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus

1.	II, I, IV, III	2.	II, I, III, IV
3.	I, II, III, IV	4.	II, III, IV, I

18.

Match the following column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes	(i) Anaphase II
B. Synthesis of RNA and protein	(ii) Zygotene
C. Action of enzyme recombinase	(iii) G₂ - phase
D. Centromeres do not separate, but chromatids move towards opposite poles	(iv) Anaphase I
	(v) Pachytene

1. A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(iv)
2. A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(v) D-(iv)
3. A-(i) B-(ii) C-(v) D-(iv)
4. A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(v)

19.

Which of the following structures performs the function of mitochondria in a bacteria?

1.	Nucleoid	2.	Ribosomes
3.	Cell wall	4.	Mesosomes

20.

An alkene "A" on reaction with $O_{3}$ and $Zn - H_{2} O$ gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. The addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major product. The structure of product "B" is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

21.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
2.	Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes
3.	The hydrolytic enzyme of lysosomes are active under acidic pH
4.	Lysosomes are membrane bound structure.

22.

In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero displacement is $0.170$ s. The frequency of the wave is:

1.	$1.47$ Hz	2.	$0.36$ Hz
3.	$0.73$ Hz	4.	$2.94$ Hz

23.

Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in the nucleus, are the sites for active synthesis of:

1.	protein	2.	mRNA
3.	rRNA	4.	tRNA

24.

Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes, in which:

1.	they require metal ions for their activity.
2.	they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
3.	their association with apoenzymes is transient.
4.	they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

25.

Correct statement/s about organic isomers is /are -

a.	They have the same molecular formula.
b.	Their physical properties are very similar.
c.	They have a different structural formula.

1. a and b only.
2. a, b and c.
3. b and c only.
4. a and c only.

26.

The most reactive compound among the following towards electrophilic substitution reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

27.

The phase difference between velocity and displacement in a simple harmonic motion is:
1. $\pi$
2. $\frac{\pi}{2}$
3. $\frac{\pi}{4}$
4. zero

28.

The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing simple harmonic motion is given by $x = 4~\mathrm{cos\pi t}$ meters. The time at which the maximum magnitude of acceleration occurs first after the start is:
1. $0.5$ s
2. $1$ s
3. $2$ s
4. $1.5$ s

29.

Displacement as a function of time is given as $y=2sin \omega t+2cos \omega t.$ The amplitude of the function is:

1.	$2\sqrt{2}$	2.	$2$
3.	$4$	4.	$8$

30.

The displacement $ x$ of a particle varies with time $t$ as $x = A sin\left (\frac{2\pi t}{T} +\frac{\pi}{3} \right)$. The time taken by the particle to reach from $x = \frac{A}{2} $ to $x = -\frac{A}{2} $ will be:

1.	$\frac{T}{2}$	2.	$\frac{T}{3}$
3.	$\frac{T}{12}$	4.	$\frac{T}{6}$

31.

A body of mass $20$ g is executing SHM with amplitude $5$ cm. When it passes through the equilibrium position its speed is $20$ cm/s. What would be the distance from equilibrium when its speed becomes $10$ cm/s?
1. $\frac{5\sqrt{3}}{4}$ cm
2. $\frac{5\sqrt{3}}{2}$ cm
3. $\frac{25\sqrt{7}}{2}$ cm
4. $5\sqrt{3}$ cm

32.

The displacement $(\mathrm{x})$ of an SHM varies with time $(\mathrm{t})$ as shown in the figure. The frequency of variation of potential energy is:

1.	$5$ Hz	2.	$10$ Hz
3.	$40$ Hz	4.	$20$ Hz

33.

A particle performs SHM with frequency $f.$ The frequency of its velocity and acceleration are respectively:
1. $f,~f$
2. $\frac{f}{2},~f$
3. $2f,~f$
4. $f,~2f$

34.

Force acting on a body free to move on the $\mathrm{X}$-axis is given by, $F=-kx^n$ where $k$ is a positive constant. For which value of $n$ motion of the body is not oscillatory?

1.	$3$	2.	$7$
3.	$2$	4.	$5$

35.

The hybridization of carbon atoms in the following compound from left to right is:

1. sp², sp³, sp², sp², sp
2. sp², sp², sp², sp², sp
3. sp³, sp², sp², sp², sp²
4. sp³, sp², sp², sp², sp

Chemistry

36.

Which of the following would not be true for a typical plant cell?
1. A cell wall composed of cellulose, hemicelluloses, and pectin.
2. A large vacuole that regulates turgor pressure.
3. The absence of flagella or centrioles, except in the gametes.
4. A freely permeable cell membrane.

37.

The end product (B) in the given reaction is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

38.

Identify the correct statement regarding the structure of a molecule shown in the given diagram:

I. It is an alpha amino acid
II. The configuration shown is called zwitterion
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

39.

The molecule shown in the given diagram:

I. is a lipid.
II. is biosynthesized from acetyl coA.
III. is a precursor of steroid hormones in animals.
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

40.

What is incorrect regarding the double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick?

1.	At each step of ascent the strand turns	36⁰
2.	The pitch	3.4 nm
3.	The rise per base pair	0.34 nm
4.	Diameter	10 nm

41.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding glycogen:
1. It is a homopolymer of alpha glucose molecules
2. It is the preferred storage carbohydrate in animals
3. The left hand of the molecule is called, the reducing end
4. It has α [1→ 6] branching

42.

Which stage of the mitotic division in a cell shown in the options depicts a ‘transition’ to metaphase?

1.		2.
3.		4.

43.

During cytokinesis:

I:	A cleavage furrow forms in the center of the animal cell and extends to the periphery
II.	A cell plate is formed at the periphery in plant cells and deepens towards the center

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

44.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	In an animal cell, the steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
2.	The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a type of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
3.	The cis and trans faces of Golgi are entirely different but interconnected.
4.	Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases.

45.

Identify the correct statement with regard to $G_{1}$ phase (Gap 1) of interphase:

1.	The reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
2.	The cell is metabolically active and grows but does not replicate its DNA
3.	Nuclear division takes place
4.	DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

46.

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
1. These are involved in the ingestion of food particles.
2. They lie freely in the cytoplasm.
3. These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
4. They are not bound by any membrane.

47.

The hydrocarbons having the lowest dipole moment among the following is:
1.
2. CH₃ - C ≡ C - CH₃
3. CH₃ CH₂ CH = CH₂
4. CH₂ = CH - C ≡ CH

48.

The figure depicts four $(\mathrm{x-t})$ plots for the linear motion of a particle.

(a)

(b)
(c)
(d)

Which of the following is true?

1.	(a) is periodic but (c) is not periodic.
2.	(b) is periodic but (d) is not periodic.
3.	(b) and (d) are periodic.
4.	only (c) is periodic.

49.

The aromatic compound among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

50.

Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their increasing reactivity with propene:
1. HCl > HBr > HI
2. HBr > HI > HCl
3. HI > HBr > HCl
4. HCl > HI > HBr

51.

The size of Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organism (PPLO) is:
1. 0.02 $μ$ m
2. 1-2 $μ$ m
3. 10-20 $μ$ m
4. 0.1 $μ$ m

52.

The possible number of distinct terminal alkynes are possible for a compound having molecular formula C₅H₈is:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

53.

Which of the following pairs represent isomers?
1. CH₃−CH₃, CH₃−CH₂−CH₃
2. H₂C=CH−OH , CH₃−O−CH₃
3.
4. All of the above.

54.

In an electrophilic substitution reaction of nitrobenzene, the presence of nitro group:

(a)	Deactivates the ring by inductive effect.
(b)	Activates the ring by inductive effect.
(c)	Decreases the charge density at ortho and para position of the ring relative meta position by resonance.
(d)	Increases the charge density at meta position relative to the ortho and para positions of the ring by resonance.

Choose the correct option:
1. (a, b)
2. (b, c)
3. (c, d)
4. (a, c)

55.

The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is:

(a)	$C H_{3} C O_{2}^{⊝}$
(b)	H₂O
(c)	$C H_{3} S O_{3}^{⊝}$
(d)	$\overset{⊝}{O} H$

1.	(b) < (c) < (a) < (d)	2.	(b) < (c) < (d) < (a)
3.	(a) < (d) < (c) < (b)	4.	(d) < (a) < (c) < (b)

56.

Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.

(a)	Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
(b)	Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c)	Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d)	Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(e)	Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

You have to choose the correct statements out of the five given above. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (b) and (c) only
2. (b) and (e) only
3. (a) and (b) only
4. (c) and (d) only

57.

If the time period of a $2$ m long simple pendulum is $2$ s, the acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion is:
1. $\pi^{2}$ m/s²
2. $2\pi^{2}$ m/s²
3. $9.8$ m/s²
4. $16$ m/s²

58.

An object of mass $m$ is suspended at the end of a massless wire of length $L$ and area of cross-section $A.$ Young modulus of the material of the wire is $Y.$ If the mass is pulled down slightly, its frequency of oscillation along the vertical direction is:
1.   $f = \frac{1}{2 π} \sqrt{\frac{m A}{Y L}}$
2.   $f = \frac{1}{2 π} \sqrt{\frac{Y L}{m A}}$
3.   $f = \frac{1}{2 π} \sqrt{\frac{m L}{Y A}}$
4.   $f = \frac{1}{2 π} \sqrt{\frac{Y A}{m L}}$

59.

The time period of a particle in simple harmonic motion is equal to the time between consecutive appearances of the particle at a particular point in its motion. This point is:

1.	the mean position
2.	an extreme position
3.	between the mean position and the positive extreme
4.	between the mean position and the negative extreme

60.

A wall clock uses a vertical spring-mass system to measure the time. Each time the mass reaches an extreme position, the clock advances by a second. The clock gives correct time at the equator. If the clock is taken to the poles it will:

1.	run slow	2.	run fast
3.	stop working	4.	give correct time

61.

A particle is fastened at the end of a string and is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string being fixed. The motion of the particle is:

1.	periodic
2.	oscillatory
3.	simple harmonic
4.	angular simple harmonic

62.

Which of the following quantities are always zero in a simple harmonic motion?

a.	$\vec{F} \times \vec{a}~~~~~~~$
b.	$\vec{v} \times\vec{r}$
c.	$\vec{a} \times\vec{r}$
d.	$\vec{F} \times\vec{r}$

Choose the correct option:

1.	(a) and (b)
2.	(a), (b) and (c)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)
4.	all of these

63.

Which of the following equations represents a wave travelling along $\mathrm{Y}$-axis?
1. $x=A ~sin(ky-\omega t)$
2. $y=A ~sin(kx-\omega t)$
3. $y=A ~sinky~ cos \omega t$
4. $y=A ~cosky~ sin \omega t$

64.

Two strings $A$ and $B,$ made of same material, are stretched by same tension. The radius of string $A$ is double of the radius of $B.$ A transverse wave travels on $A$ with speed $v_A$ and on $B$ with speed $v_B.$ The ratio $\frac{v_A}{v_B}=$ ?

1.	$\frac{1}{2}$	2.	$2$
3.	$\frac{1}{4}$	4.	$4$

65.

A tuning fork of frequency $480$ Hz is used to vibrate a sonometer wire having natural frequency $410$ Hz. The wire will vibrate with a frequency:

1.	$410$ Hz	2.	$480$ Hz
3.	$820$ Hz	4.	$960$ Hz

66.

Two sound waves move in the same direction in the same medium. The pressure amplitudes of the waves are equal but the wavelength of the first wave is double the second. Let the average power transmitted across cross-section by the first wave be $P_1$ and that by the second wave be $P_2.$ Then:

1.	$P_1=P_2~~~~~$	2.	$P_1=4P_2~~~~~$
3.	$P_2=2P_1$	4.	$P_2=4P_1$

67.

The fundamental frequency of a vibrating organ pipe is $200$ Hz.

a.	the first overtone is $400$ Hz.
b.	the first overtone may be $400$ Hz.
c.	the first overtone may be $600$ Hz.
d.	$600$ Hz is an overtone.

Choose the correct option:

1.	(a), (b) and (c)
2.	(b), (c) and (d)
3.	(a) and (b)
4.	all of these

68.

The first overtone of a closed organ pipe of length $l_1$ matches the fundamental frequency of an open pipe of length $l_2$. Then,
1. $l_1 = 2l_2$
2. $l_2 = 2l_1$
3. $2l_1 = 3l_2$
4. $2l_2 = 3l_1$

69.

Which statements are correct regarding centriole?

I:	Centrioles are typically made up of nine sets of short microtubule triplets, arranged in a cylinder.
II:	The main function of centrioles is to produce cilia during interphase and the aster and the spindle during cell division.
III:	Centrioles start duplicating when DNA replicates.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

70.

The following reaction will be catalyzed by an enzyme classified as a/an:
A–B + H₂O → A–OH + B–H

1.	Oxidoreductase	2.	Hydrolase
3.	Lyase	4.	Transferase

71.

In the DNA double helix:

I:	At each step of ascent, the strand turns 34º.
II:	The rise per base pair would be 0.36 nm.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

72.

The time taken by a particle performing SHM to pass from the point $\mathrm A$ to $\mathrm B$ where its velocities are same is $2$ s. After another $2$ s, it returns to point $\mathrm B.$ The time period of oscillation is:

1.	$2$ s	2.	$8$ s
3.	$6$ s	4.	$4$ s

73.

The kinetic energy $K$ for a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by , $K=K_0\sin^2\omega t$ . The maximum value of potential energy is:

1.	$K_0$	2.	zero
3.	$K_0 \over 2$	4.	$K_0 \over 4$

74.

A body oscillates simple harmonically with a period of $2$ s starting from the origin (mean position). After what time, will its potential energy be $50$% of the total energy?

1.	$1 \over 6$ s	2.	$1 \over 4$ s
3.	$1 \over 3$ s	4.	$1 \over 12$ s

75.

Two simple pendulums of length $1$ m and $1.44$ m are at their mean position with their velocities in the same direction at some instant. After how many oscillations of bigger pendulum they will again be in the same phase?

1.	$5$	2.	$6$
3.	$7$	4.	$8$

76. In the figure are shown two strings made of same material and have the same cross- section. The pulleys are light. The wave speed of a transverse wave in the string $\mathrm{AB}$ is $v_1$ and in $\mathrm{CD}$ it is $v_2.$ Then $v_1 \over v_2$ is:

1.	$1~~~~~~~$	2.	$2~~~~~~~$
3.	$ \sqrt 2$	4.	$1 \over \sqrt 2$

77.

The transverse wave propagating through a medium is given by $y=Acos2\pi\Big[ft-\frac{x}{\lambda}\Big].$ If the maximum particle velocity of the medium is two times the velocity of the wave through the medium, then:

1.	$\lambda=3.14A~~~~~~~$	2.	$\lambda=6.28A~~~~~~~$
3.	$6.28\lambda=A$	4.	$3.14\lambda=A$

78.

$y(x,~t)=\frac{0.01}{[(4x+2t)^2+5]}$ represents a moving wave pulse, where $x$ and $y$ are in meter and $t$ is in seconds. Then which of these statement(s) is incorrect?

1.	pulse is moving in $(\mathrm{-x})$ direction.
2.	wave speed is $0.5$ m/s.
3.	maximum particle displacement is $1$ cm.
4.	it is a symmetric pulse.

79. A simple pendulum has some time period $T$. What will be the percentage change in its time period if its amplitude is decreased by $5\%$$?$

1.	$6$$\%$
2.	$3\%$
3.	$1.5\%$
4.	it will remain unchanged

80. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude $a,$ wavelength $\mathit{\lambda}$ and frequency $f$ is traveling on a stretched string. The maximum speed of any point on the string is $\frac{v}{10},$ where $v$ is the speed of propagation of the wave. If $a=10^3$ m and $v=10$ ms^_-1 , then $\mathit{\lambda}$ and $f$ are given by:
1. $\mathit{\lambda}{=}\mathit{\pi}\times{10}^{{-}{2}}$ m
2. $\mathit{\lambda}{=}{10}^{{-}{3}}$ m
3. ${f}{=}{10}^{{-}{3}}{/}\left({{2}\mathit{\pi}}\right)$ Hz
4. ${f}{=}{10}^{4}$ Hz

81. Two SHMs have equations:
${x}_{1}{=}{a}\sin\left({\mathit{\omega}{t}{+}{\mathit{\phi}}_{1}}\right)$ and ${x}_{2}{=}{a}\sin\left({\mathit{\omega}{t}{+}{\mathit{\phi}}_{2}}\right)$.
If the amplitude of the resultant SHM is equal to amplitude of superimposing SHM(s), the phase difference between them is:

1.	$\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{6}$	2.	$\frac{{2}\mathit{\pi}}{3}$
3.	$\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{4}$	4.	$\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{3}$

82. Splitting of centromere occurs in:
1. Mitotic anaphase and Anaphase II
2. Mitotic anaphase and Anaphase I
3. Mitotic metaphase and Metaphase II
4. Mitotic metaphase and Metaphase I

83. Between Telophase I and Prophase II:
1. The nuclear membrane disappears
2. DNA does not replicate
3. A tetrad of cells is formed
4. There is a long lasting resting stage

84. The equation of vibration of a taut string, fixed at both ends, is given by: $y=(3~\text{mm})~\text{cos}\Big(\frac{\pi x}{10~\text{cm}}\Big)~\text{sin}(800\pi~\text{s}^{-1}~\text{t})$ The positions of the nodes are:

1.	x = 0 cm, 10 cm, 20 cm,...
2.	x = 0 cm, 20 cm, 40 cm,...
3.	x = 5 cm, 10 cm, 15 cm,...
4.	x = 5 cm, 15 cm, 25 cm,...

85. The major product of the following reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

86. Most stable compound among the following is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

87. Which of the following does not take place during diakinesis of Meiosis I?
1. Disappearance of nucleolus
2. Decondensation of chromosomes
3. Nuclear envelope breaks down
4. Assembly of meiotic spindle

88. Meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms creates new variations by shuffling the available genetic material and leads to the formation of a recombinant DNA which is created at:
1. Pachytene of Prophase I
2. Diplotene of Prophase I
3. Anaphase I of Meiosis I
4. Anaphase II of Meiosis II

89. A string fixed at both ends is under tension $T.$ It has a length $L,$ and mass $m.$ The fundamental frequency of the vibration is:

1.	${ 1 \over 2L} \sqrt {T\over m}~~~~~~~~~~~~~~$	2.	$\frac{1}{4 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}~~~~~~~~~~~~~~$
3.	$\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{TL}{2m}}$	4.	$\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m L}}$

90. The first overtone of a closed pipe has a frequency $f_c.$ A frequency that is $2f_c$ can be excited from an open pipe of the same length but vibrating in its:

1.	$2^{\text{nd}}$ harmonic	2.	$3^{\text{rd}}$ harmonic
3.	$6^{\text{th}}$ harmonic	4.	$12^{\text{th}}$ harmonic

Biology

91. Identify the correct statement:

1.	α amino acids are substituted methanes
2.	Only triglycerides are lipids that are both macromolecules as well as polymers
3.	Cellulose forms secondary helical structures and can hold iodine molecules in the helical portion
4.	Every virus will have both DNA and RNA as its genetic material

92. Two springs are joined end-to-end and connected to a block of mass $m.$ The angular frequency $(\omega)$ of oscillation is:

1. $\sqrt{\frac{2k}{3m}}$
2. $\sqrt{\frac{3k}{2m}}$
3. $\sqrt{\frac{3k}{m}}$
4. $\sqrt{\frac{k}{3m}}$

93. Regarding enzyme catalysis, all of the following will be true except:

1.	The rate of reaction initially increases with an increase in substrate concentration
2.	It speeds up the rate of reaction by decreasing the requirement for activation energy
3.	If the associated co-factor is removed, the enzyme activity is enhanced
4.	Enzymes have an optimum temperature and pH at which they act most efficiently

94. Match the stage of Prophase I of Meiosis I given in Column I with the corresponding event in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given below:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A.	Zygotene	P.	Crossing over
B.	Pachytene	Q.	Synapsis
C.	Diplotene	R.	Terminalization of chiasmata
D.	Diakinesis	S.	Appearance of chiasmata

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	Q	P	R	S

95. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis.
1. Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase.
2. All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase.
3. Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes.
4. Chromosomes decondense at telophase

96.

The compound obtained by addition of water to an alkyne having more than two carbons, in the presence of $HgSO_4 $ and dilute $H_2SO_4$ at 333K, is:

1.	A vicinal diol	2.	An aldehyde
3.	An alcohol	4.	A ketone

97.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I	Membrane-bound organelles of the endomembrane system coordinate cellular functions.
Statement II	Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not considered a part of the endomembrane system.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Statement - I is correct but Statement - II is incorrect.
2.	Statement - I is incorrect but Statement - II is correct.
3.	Both Statement - I and Statement - II are correct.
4.	Both Statement - I and Statement - II are incorrect.

98. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	When a spring is cut into two equal parts, the spring constant of each part of the spring is doubled.
Reason (R):	Spring constant is inversely proportional to the length of the spring.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

99. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The graph of potential energy and kinetic energy of a particle in SHM with respect to position is a parabola.
Reason (R):	Potential energy and kinetic energy do not vary linearly with position.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

100. 120 gram of an organic compound on combustion analysis gives 330 gram of carbon dioxide and 270 gram of water. % by mass of C and H in an organic compound is:
1. 50% C and 50% H
2. 60% C and 40% H
3. 80%C and 20% H
4. 75% C and 25% H

101. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The flash of lightning is seen before the sound of thunder is heard.
Reason (R):	Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

102. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Sound waves cannot propagate through a vacuum but light waves can.
Reason (R):	Sound waves cannot be polarised but light waves can be.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

103.

Assertion (A):	It is impractical to separate Conformers.
Reason (R):	Conformers have a negligibly small difference in their potential energy.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

104. A. Release of products of the reaction
B. Binding of substrate to the active site of the enzyme
C. Formation of enzyme-substrate complex
D. Alteration in the shape of the enzyme
E. Enzyme free to bind another molecule of substrate
Given above are the steps involved in the catalytic cycle of enzyme action. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B > C > D > A > E
2. B > D > C > A > E
3. B > D > A > E > C
4. B > E > D > C > A

105. Consider the following phases of cell cycle:

A.	S	B.	G2
C.	G1	D.	M

Choose the correct sequence of phases of the cell cycle:

1.	C, A, B, D	2.	D, B, A, C
3.	A, C, B, D	4.	C, A, D, B

106. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct regarding lysosomes?

A.	The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under alkaline pH
B.	Lysosomes are membrane-bound structures
C.	Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
D.	Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	A only	2.	B, D Only
3.	A, D Only	4.	A, C Only

107. Which of the following combinations are correct in response to plastids?
A. Amyloplasts store carbohydrates
B. Leucoplasts gives a red colour to the plant
C. Xanthophyll gives yellow and orange colours to parts of the plant
D. Carotenoid pigments are responsible for tapping light energy
E. Chlorophyll gives a red color
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	A & B only	2.	A, C, D only
3.	A, B, C, D only	4.	A & D only

108. What happens during the metaphase stage of the cell cycle?
1. Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

109. Which of the following is wrong with respect to 'biomolecules'?

A.	Cellulose and starch can hold I₂ due to formation of helical secondary structures
B.	Proteins transport nutrient across cell membrane and fight infectious organisms
C.	At high temperature, enzymes get damaged while inorganic catalysts work efficiently
D.	In animal tissue, different drugs, pigments, essential oil, magnesium, O₂ compounds are noticed
E.	DNA and RNA have three chemically distinct components - heterocyclic, monosaccharides and phosphates.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. D & E only
2. A & D only
3. A, B & D only
4. B, E & C only

110. Arrange the following stages of chromosomal behaviour during Prophase-I of meiosis in the correct sequence.
A. Appearance of recombination nodules
B. Formation of synaptonemal complex
C. Appearance of chiasmata
D. Terminalisation of chiasmata
E. Beginning of chromosomal compaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. E, B, D, A, C
2. C, D, A, E, B
3. E, B, A, C, D
4. D, B, E, A, C

111. Among the following, the structure which does NOT represent 2-methyl butane is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

112. Which one of the following, most accurately describes the structure of a human haemoglobin molecule, that can bind four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin?
1. It has a primary, tertiary and quaternary structure only.
2. It has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure only.
3. It has a primary and secondary structure only.
4. It has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.

113. Primary proteins are also known as polypeptides, because:
1. they are linear chains.
2. they are polymers of peptide monomers.
3. successive amino acids are joined by peptide bonds.
4. they can assume many conformations.

114. On average, a human heart is found to beat $72$ times per minute. The frequency of heartbeat will be:

1.	$0.833$ s^-1	2.	$1.2$ s^-1
3.	$12$ s^-1	4.	$72$ s^-1

115. A particle displaced by wave has its motion represented by equation, $\frac{\sin (\omega t)}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{\cos (\omega t)}{\sqrt{2}}.$ The amplitude of the motion is:

1.	${1\over \sqrt 2}$ unit	2.	$\sqrt 2 $ unit
3.	$1$ unit	4.	$2$ unit

116. Match List-I with List-II:

	List - I		List - II
a.	F₁- F₀particles	(i)	Site of dark reaction of photosynthesis
b.	Stroma of chloroplast	(ii)	Site of glycosidation of lipids
c.	Kinetochores	(iii)	ATP synthesis
d.	Golgi bodies	(iv)	Site of attachment of spindle fibres

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
2. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
3. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
4. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

117. The given reaction is an example of:

1. Addition reaction.
2. Nucleophilic substitution reaction.
3. Electrophilic substitution reaction.
4. Electrophilic addition reaction.

118. Two vibrating tuning forks producing progressive waves given by;
$y_1=4sin(500 \pi t-K_1x),$ $y_2=2sin(506\pi t-K_2x)$ are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear:
1. $9$ beats/s
2. $6$ beats/s
3. $3$ beats/s
4. $2$ beats/s

119.

Statement I:	Addition of $Cl_2$ in the presence of $CCl_4 $ with alkene will give geminal dichloride.
Statement II:	The addition of two moles of HCl with alkyne will give vicinal dichloride.

1.	Statement I is true and statement II is false.
2.	Statement I is false and statement II is true.
3.	Both statements I and II are true.
4.	Both statements I and II are false

120. A sonometer wire supports a $5$ kg load and vibrates in fundamental mode with a tuning fork of frequency $420$ Hz. The length of the wire between the bridges is now doubled. In order to maintain fundamental mode with same frequency, the load should be changed to:

1.	$1$ kg	2.	$2$ kg
3.	$8$ kg	4.	$20$ kg

121. Select the correct match from among the following:
1. Collagen – Intracellular ground substance
2. Toxin – Codeine
3. Lectin – Ricin
4. Alkaloid – Morphine

122. Match the structures given in column I, with their names in column II and select the correct option:

	Column I		Column II
a.		(i)	Alanine
b.		(ii)	Serine
c.		(iii)	Glycine
d.		(iv)	Glycerol

1. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
4. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

123.

Assertion(A):	The acid-insoluble fraction contains lipids and proteins.
Reason(R):	The molecular weight of proteins and lipids is in the range of ten thousand daltons and above.

In the light of the above statements, select the option with the correct answer.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true, (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false, (R) is true.

124. Read the statements given below with respect to proteins and select the correct one:

1.	In proteins, only left-handed helices are observed.
2.	Adult human haemoglobin is an example of a tertiary structure.
3.	Primary structure of proteins gives the positional information of amino acids.
4.	The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is called the C-terminal amino acid.

125. Consider the statements 'A' and 'B' and select the correct option:

Statement A:	Just like inorganic catalysts, enzymes work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures
Statement B:	Thermal stability is an important quality of enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms

1. Both statements A and B are correct
2. Only statement A is correct
3. Only statement B is correct
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect

126. Read the statements given below carefully:

(a)	Lipids are generally water soluble.
(b)	Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acids.
(c)	Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre is cellulosic in nature.
(d)	In a nucleic acid, the bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is an ester bond.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1.	One	2.	Two
3.	Three	4.	Four

127. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the effect of change in temperature on enzyme activity?

1.		2.
3.		4.

128. Read the statements given below and select the correct option:

(a)	In glycogen, the right end is the reducing one
(b)	Cellulose and starch form complex helices
(c)	Starch is the main structural component of papers made from plant pulp

1.	Statements (a) and (b) are correct while statement (c) is incorrect
2.	Statements (a) and (c) are correct while statement (b) is incorrect
3.	Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect while statement (a) is correct
4.	Statements (a) and (c) are incorrect while statement (b) is correct

129. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct one:
1. In DNA, the two strands of polynucleotides are parallel to each other.
2. The backbone is formed by the sugar, phosphate, sugar chain.
3. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to the backbone but face outside.
4. T and C of one strand complementarily base pairs with G and A in the other strand, respectively.

130. If guanine makes 20% of the DNA molecules, what will be the percentage of adenine, thymine and cytosine in it?
1. [A]: 20 ; [T] : 25 ; [C] : 35
2. [A]: 30 ; [T] : 30 ; [C] : 20
3. [A]: 20 ; [T] : 30 ; [C] : 30
4. [A]: 30 ; [T] : 20 ; [C] : 30

131. Which graph best represents the relationship between the wavelength and speed of waves emitted from a tuning fork, if the wave frequency is fixed?

1.		2.
3.		4.

132. Increasing the wave amplitude of a standing wave will:

1.	increase the number of nodes.
2.	increase the number of antinodes.
3.	increase the displacement of the cord at a node.
4.	increase the displacement of the cord at an antinode.

133. The IUPAC name for the following compound is:

1.	4-Hexen-3-one	2.	3-Hexenone
3.	2-Hexene-4-one	4.	Hex-3-on-4-ene

134. The wave shown in traveling to the right. Which of the waves below, traveling to the left, will momentarily cancel this wave?

1.		2.
3.		4.

135. The two lowest notes on the piano are $\mathrm{A_0}$ $(27.5~\mathrm{Hz})$ and $\mathrm{A}$#_$0$ $(29.1~\mathrm{Hz}).$ If you play the notes simultaneously, the resulting sound seems to turn off and on and off and on. How much time exists between the successive "on"s?

1.	$0.6$ s	2.	$1.6$ s
3.	$28.3$ s	4.	$56.6$ s

136. A block of mass $2$ kg is attached with two identical springs of force constant $20$ N/m as shown in the figure. The time period of the oscillation of the block is:

1. $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{20}}$ s
2. $\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{20}}$ s
3. $2\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{10}}$ s
4. $\pi \sqrt{\frac{1}{10}}$ s

137. The incorrect statement(s) among the following is/are:

a.	The spots of colorless compounds in TLC can be detected by putting the plate under infrared light.
b.	Carbohydrate is detected by spraying the plate with ninhydrin solution.
c.	Chromatography paper contains water trapped in it, which acts as the stationary phase.

1. Only a
2. Both a and b
3. Both b and c
4. Only c

138. Which of the following functions is carried out by the cytoskeleton in a cell?

1.	Transportation	2.	Nuclear division
3.	Protein synthesis	4.	Motility

139. If the angular frequency of the given motion $y = sin ( \omega t) + cos (\omega t)$ is $k \omega$, then value of $k$ is:
1. $1/2$
2. $1$
3. $2$
4. none of these

140. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after:

1.	Anaphase	2.	Telophase
3.	Prophase	4.	Metaphase

141. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Golgi apparatus?

A.	It is the important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids
B.	It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
C.	It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER
D.	It facilitates the transport of ions
E.	It provides mechanical support

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(B) and (C) only	2.	(A) and (C) only
3.	(A) and (D) only	4.	(D) and (E) only

142. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is essential for a cell to divide, to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Reason (R):	Cell growth disturbs the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

143. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Meiosis does not occur in haploids cells.
Reason (R):	Haploid cells do not form gametes.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

144. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	During anaphase-1 of meiosis, non-homologous chromosomes separate.
Reason (R):	There is splitting of centromere during anaphase-1.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

145. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Concentration of ions is significantly higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm in a plant cell.
Reason (R):	In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions against the concentration of gradient into a vacuole

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

146. Unidentical chromatids of a chromosome move to opposite poles during:
1. Anaphase II
2. Telophase
3. Mitotic anaphase
4. Anaphase I

147. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA.
Reason (R):	Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body are the cell organelles which have their own DNA.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

148. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Cell wall gives shape to the plant cell, protect the cell and helps in cell to cell interactions.
Reason (R):	Cell wall is living rigid structure, an outer covering for the plasma membrane of fungi, animal and plants.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

149. Find the odd one out for G₁ phase, from the following:
1. Most of the cell organelles duplicate here
2. Involves protein synthesis
3. Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm
4. RNA formation occurs

150. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is important that the organisms should have cells.
Reason (R):	A cell keeps its chemical composition steady within its boundary.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

151. A cell is considered as a fundamental, structural and functional unit of all living organisms. This is because

1.	Metabolic reactions occur only inside the cell.
2.	Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.
3.	Cytoplasm is the main arena of activities, which is present inside the cell.
4.	There is no independent existence of unicelled prokaryotes as they have only a single cell.

152. Under the microscope, we cannot see chromosome in which of the following phases of cell division?
1. Leptotene
2. Anaphase
3. Diakinesis
4. Late telophase

153. Chromatophores and mesosomes are both membranous extensions into the cytoplasm but still they differ from each other as former helps in __A_ and latter helps in B .
Fill the above blanks choosing the correct option.

	A	B
1.	Respiration	Photosynthesis
2.	Cell wall formation	DNA replication
3.	Photosynthesis	Respiration
4.	DNA replication	Secretion process

154. A process that is common to metaphases of mitosis, meiosis I as well as meiosis II is:

1.	Alignment of chromosome at equatorial plate
2.	Attachment of spindle fibres from centrioles to both of the kinetochores of each chromosome
3.	Separation of sister chromatids
4.	Exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids

155. Carrier proteins in the membrane, facilitate the transport of water molecules because these molecules:

1.	Are polar; hence cannot pass through the lipid bilayer.
2.	Are so large that they cannot cross the lipid bilayer
3.	Are not required in the cytoplasm but only in the membrane.
4.	May be lipid-soluble but requires tunnel proteins.

156. Apart from chromoplasts, carotenoid pigments are also seen in chloroplast. There they:
1. Are responsible for trapping light energy
2. Impart colour to plant parts only
3. Can initiate photosynthesis
4. Act as primary photosynthetic pigments.

157. Mark the incorrect option about chromosomes from the following:
1. Contain DNA and histones but not RNA
2. Contain primary constriction
3. Are 23 pairs in diploid human cell
4. Are condensed forms of chromatin

158. Among the following, the compound which contains the fewest tertiary carbons is

1.	$(CH_3)_3C(CH_2)_2CH_3~~~~~~~~~~~~~$
2.	4-isobutylheptane
3.
4.

159. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Analysis of compounds gives an idea of the kind of organic and inorganic constituents of living tissue.
Reason (R):	Ash analysis is performed to identify organic components of living tissue.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

160. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Lipids are a part of acid-soluble pool.
Reason (R):	Lipids are macromolecular polymers and are insoluble in water.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

161. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Tertiary structure of a protein is absolutely necessary for its biological activities.
Reason (R):	The structure brings distant amino acid side chains closer, thereby forming active sites of enzymes.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

162. The organic compound 'X' that is 5 - 7% of the total cellular mass in living organisms, constitutes monomeric units that are joined together with the help of:

1.	Phosphodiester bonds	2.	Peptide bonds
3.	Glycosidic bonds	4.	Hydrogen bonds

163. The cell wall of an Okra plant is made up of cellulose. The variant of this, present in plants that act as a store-house of energy is:

1.	Glycogen	2.	Glucosamine
3.	Chitin	4.	Starch

164. The enzyme commission number of an enzyme 'X' is 2.3.1.4. 'X' belongs to a class of enzymes that catalyses:
1. NAD⁺ + 2H⁺ + 2e^- $\longrightarrow$ NADH + H⁺
2. S - G + S¹ $\longrightarrow$ S + S¹ - G
3. X - C - C - Y $\longrightarrow$ X - Y + C = C
4. A - B + H₂O $\longrightarrow$ A - OH + B - H

165. Neopentyl chloride reacts with benzene in the presence of a Lewis acid ($AlCl_3$) to form:
1.

2.

3.

4.

166. What is common between Eukaryotic & Prokaryotic flagella?
1. Both have the same structure
2. Both are used for locomotion
3. Both are composed of the same proteins
4. Both are extensions of the cell membrane

167. Which of the following is similar, in the DNA of an elephant and the mango tree?

1.	Size of DNA	2.	Type of nucleotide
3.	Sequence of nucleotide	4.	Total bases

168.

The above diagram represents:
1. anaphase-I
2. metaphase-I
3. telophase-I
4. prophase-I

169. Which of the following sodium compound(s) is/are formed when an organic compound containing both nitrogen and sulphur is fused with sodium?
1. Cyanide and sulphide.
2. Thiocyanate.
3. Sulphite and cyanide.
4. Nitrate and sulphide.

170. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Stability)		List II (Reason)
(A)		(1)	Inductive effect
(B)		(2)	Resonance
(C)		(3)	Hyper-conjugation and resonance
(D)		(4)	Hyper-conjugation and inductive effect

Codes:
1. A - 2; B - 3; C - 4; D - 1
2. A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2
3. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2
4. A - 3; B - 4; C - 2; D - 1

171. Among the following, the compound which is wrongly named is:

1.		2-Chloropentanoic acid
2.		2-Methylpent-2-en-5-oic acid
3.		Hex-3-en-2-one
4.		4-Methylpentanal

172.

The major product (A) in the above reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

173. The correct decreasing order of bond length in the given compound is:

1. I > III > II
2. II > I > III
3. I > II > III
4. III > II > I

174.

In the following diagrams, each shows a section of the cell surface membrane to illustrate the fluid mosaic model. Which diagram is the most accurate?
(The black shape represents cholesterol, and the gray shape represents protein.)

1.
2.
3.
4.

175. The hydrocarbon that cannot be prepared effectively by the Wurtz reaction is:
1.

2.

3.

4.

176. Which structure‐function pair is mismatched?
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ‐ synthesis of lipids
2. Golgi apparatus ‐ synthesis of glycoprotein
3. Peroxisome ‐ Cellular respiration
4. Vacuole ‐ water balance

177. Which of the following reactions is correct?

1.
2.
3.
4.

178. Incorrect statement/s among the following about alkynes is:
1. The first three members are gases.
2. All alkynes are odourless.
3. All alkynes are colorless.
4. They are lighter than water and immiscible with water.

179. Select the incorrect statement from the following, regarding cell wall functions:
1. Protection from mechanical injury
2. Cell-to-cell interaction
3. Maintains shape of cell
4. Provides selective permeability

180. Animal cells and plant cells are similar to each other in all of the following features, except?
1. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities
2. Presence of a non-membranous cell organelle which helps in cell division and formation of basal bodies
3. Presence of both 70S and 80S ribosomes
4. Presence of endomembrane system

181. Which of the following is not associated with the observations of Theodore Schwann?

1.	Cell membrane is the outermost layer of animal cells.
2.	Bodies of both plants and animals are composed of cells and their products
3.	A cell divides to form new cells
4.	Presence of cell wall is a unique feature of plant cells

182. Chromosomes duplicate during __A__ and increase in number of chromosomes is observed first during __B__. Identify A & B correctly.

1	A – Interphase	B – Prophase
2	A – S – phase	B – Telophase
3	A – Synthetic phase	B – Gap 2 phase
4	A – Interphase	B – Anaphase

183. Give the stability order of the following radicals:

(I)	$\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~$
(II)	$\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3$
(III)	$\text {CH}_2=\mathrm{CH}-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3$
(IV)

1. III > IV > II > I
2. IV > III > II > I
3. I > II > III > IV
4. IV > II > III > I

184. The number of moles of hydrogen will be required for the complete hydrogenation of one mole of the following compound is:

1. 6
2. 7
3. 5
4. 3

185. The total number of unsaturated cyclic structure possible for a compound with the molecular formula C₄H₆ is:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

186. Which one of the following statements is not true for carbocation?
1. Carbocation is electrophile.
2. Carbocation is diamagnetic in character.
3. It is formed by homolytic bond fission.
4. It reacts with nucleophiles.

187. The electrophile species among the following is/are:
1. $\mathrm{CO}_2$
2. $NO_2^+$
3. $\mathrm{AlCl}_3$
4. All of the above.

188. Which of the following alkenes is the most stable?
1.

2. $CH_3-CH=CH_2 $
3. $H_3C-CH=CH-CH_3 $
4.

189. The total number of possible structural isomers with the molecular formula C₅H₁₀O having either aldehyde or ketone functional group are:
1. 6
2. 4
3. 5
4. 7

190. $0.16 ~g$ of an organic substance was heated in a carius tube and the sulphuric acid formed was precipitated as- BaSO₄ with BaCl₂. The weight of the dry BaSO₄ was 0.35 g. The $\%$ of sulphur in the compound is:

1.	36.11	2.	30.04
3.	25.12	4.	42.12

191. The correct order of stability of the following carbocations is:

1. II > IV > I > III
2. I > II > III > IV
3. II > I > IV > III
4. I > III > II > IV

192. The total number of resonance structures (including the given structure) that can be drawn for the following carbocation is:

1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4

193. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing number of $\alpha -$hydrogen:


(i)	(ii)	(iii)

1. (i) > (ii) > (iii)
2. (ii) > (i) > (iii)
3. (ii) > (iii) > (i)
4. (iii) > (ii) > (i)

194. When n-hexane is heated with anhydrous $AlCl_3$ and $HCl $ gas, the major products(s) obtained is/are:
1. Mixture of 2-methylpentane and 3-methylpentane.
2. 2-chlorohexane.
3. 3-chlorohexane .
4. Hex-3-ene.

195. The correct IUPAC numbering among the following is:
1.

2.

3.

4.

196. A few mixtures and their methods of separation are given in columns I and II respectively. Match the columns and mark the appropriate choice.

	Column I		Column II
(A)	Chloroform + aniline	(p)	Steam distillation
(B)	o-Nitrophenol + p-Nitrophenol	(q)	Distillation
(C)	Benzoic acid+ Benzaldehyde	(r)	Fractional distillation
(D)	Fractions of crude oil	(s)	Sublimation

1. A-(r); B-(q); C-(p); D-(s)
2. A-(q); B-(r); C-(p); D-(s)
3. A-(q); B-(p); C-(s); D-(r)
4. A-(p); B-(r); C-(q); D-(s)

197.

	List-I (Chemicals)		List-II (Use/Preparation/Constitute)
A.	Alcoholic potassium hydroxide	(i)	Potassium salt of a carboxylic acid.
B.	Pd/BaSO₄	(ii)	Obtained by addition reaction.
C.	BHC (Benzene hexachloride)	(iii)	Used for $\beta$-elimination.
D.	Kolbe’s electrolytic method	(iv)	Lindlar's catalyst.

Choose the most appropriate match:

1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
2. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
3. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
4. A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

198. The total number of lone pair of electrons in the given molecule is:

:
1. 8
2. 6
3. 5
4. 7

199. Arrange the following in decreasing order of stability of their transition state during elimination by a strong base.

1. II > I > III
2. II > III > I
3. I > III > II
4. I > II > III

200.

Assertion (A):	Inductive effect is a permanent effect.
Reason (R):	Inductive effect weakens steadily with increasing distance from the substituent.

In light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

201. In Young's-double slit experiment, the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The separation between the slits is reduced to half. As a result the fringe width:

1.	is halved
2.	become four times
3.	remains unchanged
4.	is doubled

202. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a cross-sectional area of $0.01 $ cm². Each is $1$ m long. One rod is of copper with a resistivity of $1.7\times10^{-6}$$\Omega-\text{cm}$, the other is of iron with a resistivity of $10^{-5}$ $\Omega-\text{cm}.$ How much voltage is required to produce a current of $1$ A in the rods?

1. $0.00145$ V
2. $0.0145$ V
3. $1.7\times10^{-6}$ V
4. $0.117$ V

203. A long straight wire carries a certain current and produces a magnetic field $2 \times 10^{-4} $ Wb/m² at a perpendicular distance of $5$ cm from the wire. An electron situated at $5$ cm from the wire moves with a velocity $10^7 $ m/s towards the wire along perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the electron will be:
(Charge on electron = $1.6 \times 10^{-19} $ C)
1. $3.2$ N
2. $3.2 \times 10^{-16} $ N
3. $1.6 \times 10^{-16} $ N
4. zero

204. The output from a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The resulting gate is a:

1. AND gate
2. NOR gate
3. OR gate
4. NOT gate

205. The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a circular disc, of the same mass and radius, about an axis passing through their centers and perpendicular to their planes are:
1. $1 : \sqrt 2$
2. $3:2$
3. $2:1$
4. $ \sqrt 2 : 1 $

206. The pair of quantities having the same dimensions is:

1.	Impulse and surface tension
2.	Angular momentum and work
3.	Work and torque
4.	Young's modulus and energy

207. A system is taken from state $\text{a}$ to state $\text{c}$ by two paths $\text {adc}$ and $\text {abc}$ as shown in the figure. The internal energy at $\text a$ is $\mathrm{U}_{\mathrm{a}}=10 \mathrm{~J}$. Along the path $ \text {adc}$ the amount of heat absorbed $\delta Q_1=50 \mathrm{~J}$ and the work obtained $\delta W_1=20 \mathrm{~J}$ whereas along the path $\text {abc}$ the heat absorbed $\delta Q_2=36 \mathrm{~J}$. The amount of work along the path $\text {abc}$ is:

1. $10$ J
2. $12$ J
3. $36$ J
4. $6$ J

208. The primary of a transformer when connected to dc battery of $10$ Volt draws a current of $1~\mathrm{mA}$. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the circuit in the secondary are respectively:

1.	$20~\mathrm{V}$ and $2.0~\mathrm{mA}$
2.	$10~\mathrm{V}$ and $0.5~\mathrm{mA}$
3.	zero and therefore no current
4.	$20~\mathrm{V}$ and $0.5~\mathrm{mA}$

209. How does the binding Energy per nucleon vary with the increase in the number of nucleons?

1.	decrease continuously with mass number.
2.	first decreases and then increases with an increase in mass number.
3.	first increases and then decreases with an increase in mass number.
4.	increases continuously with mass number.

210. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is $100$ cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their fundamental frequencies in the ratio $1:3:5$?
1. $\frac{1500}{23} \mathrm{~cm}, \frac{500}{23} \mathrm{~cm} $
2. $\frac{1500}{23} \mathrm{~cm}, \frac{300}{23} \mathrm{~cm} $
3. $\frac{300}{23} \mathrm{~cm}, \frac{1500}{23} \mathrm{~cm} $
4. $\frac{1500}{23} \mathrm{~cm}, \frac{2000}{23} \mathrm{~cm}$

211. An electric dipole of dipole moment $\text{p}$ is aligned parallel to a uniform electric field $\text{E}.$ The energy required to rotate the dipole by $90^\circ$ is:
1. $\text p^2 \text E$
2. $\text p \text E$
3. infinite
4. $\text {pE}^2$

212. A charge $q$ is placed at the center of the line joining two equal charges $Q.$ The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium if $q$ is equal to:
1. $-Q/4$
2. $Q/4$
3. $-Q/2$
4. $Q/2$

213. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius $10$ m with a constant speed of $10$ m/s. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light wire of length $1.0$ m. The angle made by the wire with the vertical is:
1. $\pi \over 3 $
2. $\pi \over 6$
3. $\pi \over 4$
4. $0^\circ$

214. A bar magnet of the magnetic moment $M$ is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction $B.$ If a force $F$ is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will be:
1. $MB/F$
2. $BF/M$
3. $MF/B$
4. $F/MB$

215. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of the earth. Both have almost equal average mass densities. If $V_P$ and $V_E$ are escape velocities of the planet and the earth, respectively, then:
1. $V_P = 1.5 V_E$
2. $V_P = 2V_E$
3. $V_E = 3 V_P$
4. $V_E = 1.5 V_P$

216. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young's modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the figure are $p,$ $q$ and $s$ respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be:

1. $\frac{5 q}{\left(7 \mathrm{sp}^2\right)} $
2. $\frac{7 q}{\left(5 sp^2\right)} $
3. $\frac{2 q}{(5 s p)} $
4. $\frac{7 q}{(5 s p)}$

217. A parallel beam of light of wavelength $\lambda$ is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of the slit is:

1.	$2 \pi$	2.	$3 \pi$
3.	$4 \pi$	4.	$ \pi \lambda$

218. A particle of mass $m$ is kept at rest at a height $3R$ from the surface of the earth, where $R$ is the radius of earth and $M$ is the mass of the earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return, is:
($g$ is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)
1. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{2 \mathrm{R}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}} $
2. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{g} R}{4}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}} $
3. $ \left(\frac{2 g}{R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}} $
4. $\left(\frac{G M}{R}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

219. A current of $2.5$ A flows through a coil of inductance $5$ H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is:
1. $0.5$ Wb
2. $12.5$ Wb
3. zero
4. $2$ Wb

220. The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset is due to:

1.	the scattering of light.
2.	the polarisation of light.
3.	the colour of the sun.
4.	the colour of the sky.

221. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition $n_1 \rightarrow n_2$ where $n_1$ and $n_2$ are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr's model to be valid, the time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of $n_1$ and $n_2$ are:
1. $ n_1 = 6~\text{and}~n_2 = 2$
2. $ n_1 = 8~\text{and}~ n_2 = 1$
3. $ n_1 = 8~\text{and}~ n_2 = 2$
4. $n_1 = 4~\text{and}~n_2 = 2$

222. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together is $100$ kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires $10$ shots horizontally, in $5$ s. Each bullet has a mass of $10~\mathrm{g}$ with a muzzle velocity of $800~\mathrm{ms^{-1}}$. The final velocity acquired by the person and the average force exerted on the person are:
1. $-0.08 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1} ; 16 \mathrm{~N} $
2. $-0.8 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1} ; 16 \mathrm{~N} $
3. $-1.6 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1} ; 16 \mathrm{~N} $
4. $-1.6 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1} ; 8 \mathrm{~N}$

223. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure $P$. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure will be:
1. $2 P$
2. $P$
3. $\frac{P}{2}$
4. $4 P$

224. A circular coil $\text {ABCD}$ carrying a current $\text{i}$ is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment $\text {AB}$ is $\vec F$ the force on the remaining segment $\text {BCDA}$ is:

1. $-\vec F$
2. $3\vec F$
3. $-3\vec F$
4. $\vec F$

225. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have the same temperature difference between their ends. Their thermal conductivities are $\mathrm{K}_1$and $\mathrm{K}_2$and cross-sectional areas $\mathrm{A}_{1}$ and $\mathrm{A}_{2},$ respectively. If the rate of heat conduction in 1 is four times that in 2, then:
1. $\mathrm{K}_1 \mathrm{A}_1=4\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{A}_2 $
2. $\mathrm{K}_1 \mathrm{A}_1=2 \mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{A}_2 $
3. $4 \mathrm{K}_1 \mathrm{A}_1=\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{A}_2 $
4. $\mathrm{K}_1 \mathrm{A}_1=\mathrm{K}_2 \mathrm{A}_2$

226. $\alpha$- particles, $\beta$-particles and $\gamma$-rays are all having the same energy. Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing order will be:
1. $\gamma , \alpha, \beta$
2. $ \alpha, \beta , \gamma$
3. $ \beta, \alpha , \gamma$
4. $\beta, \gamma, \alpha$

227. A source of light is placed at a distance of $50$ cm from a photo cell and the stopping potential is found to be $V_0$. If the distance between the light source and photo cell is made $25$ cm, the new stopping potential will be:
1. $V_0 /2$
2. $V_0 $
3. $4V_0 $
4. $2V_0 $

228. Vectors $\vec {\mathrm{A}}, \vec{\mathrm{B}} $ and $\vec{\mathrm{C}}$ are such that $\vec{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \vec{\mathrm{B}}=0 \text { and } \vec{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \vec{\mathrm{C}}=0$. Then the vector parallel to $\vec A$ is:
1. $\vec{A} \times \vec{B} $
2. $\vec{B}+\vec{C} $
3. $\vec{B} \times \vec{C} $
4. $\vec{B}~\text{and} ~\vec{C}$

229. One way in which the operation of a $\text{n-p-n}$ transistor differs from that a $\text{p-n-p}$:

1.	the emitter junction injects minority carriers into the base region of the $\text{p-n-p}$.
2.	the emitter injects holes into the base of the $\text{p-n-p}$ and electrons into the base regions of $\text{n-p}$.
3.	the emitter injects holes into the base of $\text{n-p-n}$.
4.	the emitter junction is reversed biased in $\text{n-p}$.

230. Which of the following relations does not give the equation of an adiabatic process, where terms have their usual meaning?
1. $\mathrm{P}^{1-\gamma} \mathrm{T}^\gamma= \text{constant}$
2. $\mathrm{PV}^\gamma=\text{ constant }$
3. $\mathrm{TV}^{\gamma-1}= \text{constant }$
4. $\mathrm{P}^{\gamma} \mathrm{T}^{1-\gamma}= \text{constant}$

231. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc $D_1$ has a $2$ kg mass and $0.2$ m radius and an initial angular velocity of $50$ rads^–1. Disc $D_2$ has a $4$ kg mass, $0.1$ m radius and an initial angular velocity of $200$ rad s^–1. The two discs are brought in contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad s ^–1) of the system is:
1. $60$
2. $100$
3. $120$
4. $40$

232. A fluid is in streamline flow across of a horizontal pipe of the variable area of cross-section. For this which of the following statements is correct?

1.	the velocity is maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the widest part of the pipe.
2.	velocity and pressure both are maximum at the narrowest part of the pipe.
3.	velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest part of the pipe.
4.	the velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the pipe and the pressure is minimum at the widest part of the pipe.

233. An electromagnetic wave of frequency $\nu=3.0$ MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity $\epsilon =4.0$ Then:

1.	wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half.
2.	wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged.
3.	wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
4.	wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged.

234. A particle with total energy $E$ is moving in a potential energy region $U(x).$ The motion of the particle is restricted to the region where:
1. $U(x)<E$
2. $U(x)=0$
3. $U(x)\leq E$
4. $U(x)> E$

235. The displacement $x$ (in m) of a particle of mass $m$ (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a force, is related to time $t$ (in s) by, $t = \sqrt x +3 $ . The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero will be:
1. $4$ m
2. zero
3. $6$ m
4. $2$ m

236. A $12$ cm wire is given a shape of a right-angled triangle ABC having sides $3$ cm, $4$ cm and $5$ cm, as shown in the figure. The resistance between two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the respective sides are measured one by one by a multi-meter. The resistances will be in the ratio:

1. $9:16:25$
2. $27:32:35$
3. $21:24:25$
4. $3:4:5$

237. Two sources $\text{P}$ and $\text{Q}$ produce notes of frequency $660~\text{Hz}$ each. A listener moves from $\text{P}$ to $\text{Q}$ with a speed of $1$ m/s. If The speed of sound is $330$ m/s, then number of beats heard by the listener per second will be:
1. $4$
2. $8$
3. $2$
4. zero

238. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutrons in thermal equilibrium at temperature $T$ is:
1. $\frac{3.08}{\sqrt{T}} ~\mathring{A}$
2. $\frac{0.308}{\sqrt{T}} ~\mathring{A}$
3. $\frac{0.0308}{\sqrt{T}} ~\mathring{A}$
4. $\frac{30.8}{\sqrt{T}} ~\mathring{A}$

239. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine $A$ receives heat from the source at temperature $T_1$ and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature $T.$ The second engine $B$ receives the heat at temperature $T$ and rejects to its sink at temperature $T_2$. For what value of $T$ the efficiencies of the two engines are equal?
1. $\frac{T_1-T_2}{2} $
2. $T_1 T_2 $
3. $\sqrt{T_1 T_2} $
4. $\frac{T_1+T_2}{2}$

240. A particle of mass $m$ oscillates along $\text{x}-$axis according to equation $x = asin\omega t.$ The nature of the graph between momentum and displacement of the particle is:

1.	circle
2.	hyperbola
3.	ellipse
4.	straight line passing through the origin

241. Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a wire of length one meter and radius $r$ by $10^\circ \text{C}$ in time $t.$ How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length two meters of the same radius by the same temperature in time $t?$
1. $20$
2. $30$
3. $40$
4. $10$

242. The density of water at $20^\circ \text{C}$ is $998$ kg/m³ and at $40^\circ \text{C}$ is $992$ kg/m³. The coefficient of volume expansion of water is:
1. $3 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$
2. $2 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$
3. $6 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$
4. $10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$

243. Two plane mirrors are inclined at $70^\circ.$ A ray incident on one mirror at an angle, $\theta$ after reflection falls on the second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to the first mirror. The value of $\theta$ is:
1. $45^\circ$
2. $30^\circ$
3. $55^\circ$
4. $50^\circ$

244. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-regions to n-regions because of:

1.	the attraction of free electrons of the n-region.
2.	the higher hole concentration in the p-region than that in the n-region.
3.	the higher concentration of electrons is in the n-region than that in the p-region.
4.	the potential difference across the p-n junction.

245. One coolie takes $1$ minute to raise a suitcase through a height of $2$ m but the second coolie takes $30$ s to raise the same suitcase to the same height. The powers of two coolies are in the ratio:
1. $1:3$
2. $2:1$
3. $3:1$
4. $1:2$

246. The outer electronic configuration of Gd:
( At. No. 64)
1. 4f⁵ 5d⁴ 6s¹
2. 4f⁷5d¹ 6s²
3. 4f³ 5d⁵ 6s²
4. 4f⁴ 5d⁵ 6s¹

247. Accumulation of lactic acid (HC₃H₅O₃), a monobasic acid in tissues leads to pain and a feeling of fatigue. In a 0.10 M aqueous solution, lactic acid is 3.7% dissociates. The value of the dissociation constant, K_a, for this acid, will be:
1. 1.4 × 10^–5
2. 1.4 × 10^–4
3. 3.7 × 10^–4
4. 2.8 × 10^–4

248. For a reaction between A and B the order with respect to A is 2 and the order with respect to B is 3. The concentration of both A and B is doubled the rate will increase by a factor of:

1.	12	2.	16
3.	32	4.	10

249. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is:
1. Al₂O₃
2. PbO
3. ZnO
4. Fe₂O₃

250. Given:


I	II

I and II are:
1. identical
2. a pair of conformers
3. a pair of geometrical isomers
4. a pair of optical isomers

251. Crystal field splitting energy for high spin d⁴octahedral complex is:
1. – 1.2 $\Delta_{0}$
2. – 0.6 $\Delta_{0}$
3. – 0.8 $\Delta_{0}$
4. –1.6 $\Delta_{0}$

252. Arrange the following in increasing order of stability:

(a)	$\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3 $
(b)	$\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}} $
(c)	$\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H} $
(d)	$ \text {CH}_3 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_2$
(e)	$ \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_3 $

1.	e < d < c < a < b	2.	d < e < c < a < b
3.	a < e < d < c < b	4.	e < d < c < b < a

253. Consider the half-cell reduction reaction:
$Mn^{2+}+2e^{-}$ $\rightarrow$ $Mn,\ E^{0}=\ -1.18\ V $
$Mn^{2+}\rightarrow Mn^{3+}+e^{-},\ E^{0}=\ -1.51\ V$
The $E^{0}$ for the reaction $3\ Mn^{2+}\rightarrow Mn^{0}+2Mn^{3+} $ and possibility of the forward reaction is respectively:

1.	– 4.18 V and yes	2.	+ 0.33 V and yes
3.	+ 2.69 V and no	4.	– 2.69 V and no

254. How many grams of cobalt metal will be deposited when a solution of cobalt (II) chloride is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 109 minutes?
(1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u):

1.	4.0	2.	20.0
3.	40.0	4.	0.66

255. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]°, the Cl–Co–Cl angle is 90°, and the isomer is known as:
1. Optical isomer
2. Cis-isomer
3. Position isomer
4. Linkage isomer

256. Which one of the following statements is not true?

1.	Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm.
2.	Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its concentration upto 1 ppm.
3.	When the pH of rainwater is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain.
4.	Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration upto 10 ppm.

257. When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and propane is perfectly combusted at 0°C and 1 atmosphere, 16 litres of oxygen at the same temperature and pressure is consumed. The amount of heat released from this combustion in kJ ($\Delta $H_comb. (CH₄) = 890 kJ mol^–1, $\Delta $H_comb( C₃H₈) = 2220 kJ mol^–1) is:
1. 38
2. 317
3. 477
4. 32

258. The hybridisation of benzyl carbonium ion

is:

1.	sp²	2.	spd²
3.	sp²d	4.	sp³

259. The pair of species that has the same bond order in the following is:
1. CO, NO⁺
2. NO^–, CN^–
3. O₂, N₂
4. O₂, B₂

260. According to the law of photochemical equivalence, the energy absorbed (in ergs/mole) is given as:
(h = 6.62 × 10^–27 ergs, c = 3 × 10¹⁰ cm s^–1, N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ mol^–1)
1. ${{1.196\times 10^{8}}\over{\lambda}}$
2. ${{2.859\times 10^{5}}\over{\lambda}}$
3. ${{2.859\times 10^{16}}\over{\lambda}}$
4. ${{1.196\times 10^{16}}\over{\lambda}}$

261. Three thermochemical equations are given below:

(i)	C_(graphite) + O₂(g) $\rightarrow$ CO₂(g); $\Delta_{r}$H° = x kJ mol^–1
(ii)	C_graphite + 1/2 O₂(g) $\rightarrow$ CO(g); $\Delta_{r}$H° = y kJ mol^–1
(iii)	CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) $\rightarrow$ CO₂(g); $\Delta_{r}$H° = z kJ mol^–1

Based on the above equations, find out which one of the relationships given below is correct :

1.	z = x + y	2.	x = y + z
3.	y = 2z – x	4.	x = y – z

262. The correct order of least negative to most negative electron gain enthalpy for C, Ca, Al, F and O is:
1. Al < Ca < O < C < F
2. Al < O < C < Ca < F
3. C < F < O < Al < Ca
4. Ca < Al < C < O < F

263. The anion of acetylacetone (acac) forms Co(acac)₃chelate with Co³⁺. The rings of the chelate are:
1. Five membered
2. Four membered
3. Six membered
4. Three membered

264. At 100 °C the K_w of water is 55 times its value at 25ºC. What will be the pH of a neutral solution?
(log 55 = 1.74)

1.	7.00	2.	7.87
3.	5.13	4.	6.13

265. Identify the incorrect statements, regarding the molecule XeO₄:
1. XeO₄ molecule is square planar
2. There are four p$\pi$ – d$\pi$ bonds
3. There are four sp³ – p, $\sigma$ bonds
4. XeO₄molecule is tetrahedral

266. In Castner-Kellner cell for the production of sodium hydroxide:
1. brine is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes
2. molten sodium chloride is electrolysed
3. sodium amalgam is formed at mercury cathode
4. brine is electrolyzed with Pt electrodes

267. Which of the following chemical system is non-aromatic?

1.		2.
3.		4.

268. Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Fridel Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the presence of AlCl₃ to give a compound (B). (B) is oxidized in the presence of air to form the compound (C). The structural formula of (C) is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

269. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne's test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae:
1. $Fe_3[Fe(CN)_6]_2$
2. $Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3$
3. $Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_2$
4. $Fe_3[Fe(CN)_6]_3$

270.

$CH_3-CH_3, \ CH_3-CH_2-CH_3, \ $
$\left(CH_3\right)_2 CH-CH_3, $ and $CH_3-CH_2-CH\left(CH_3\right)_2 $
The increasing order of stability of the free radicals formed from homolytic fission of the above three alkanes is:

1.	$\begin{aligned} & (CH_3)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ & <CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<(CH_3)_3 \dot{C} & \\ \end{aligned}$
2.	$ \begin{aligned} &CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ & <\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}\end{aligned}$
3.	$\begin{aligned} & CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3\\ &<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3 \end{aligned}$
4.	$\begin{aligned} & \left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2-CH_3 \\ &<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H_2 \end{aligned}$

271. Incorrect statement among the following is:

1.	Quartz is extensively used as a piezoelectric material.
2.	Silicones are a group of organosilicon polymers, which have (-R₂SiO-) as a repeating unit.
3.	Basic structural unit in silicates is the SiO₄^4– tetrahedron.
4.	Feldspars are not aluminosilicates.

272. The outer orbitals of C in an ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to given three equivalent sp² orbitals. The total number of sigma ($\sigma$) and pi($\pi$) bonds in ethene molecule are:
1. 3 sigma ($\sigma$) and 2 pi($\pi$) bonds
2. 4 sigma ($\sigma$) and 1 pi($\pi$) bonds
3. 5 sigma ($\sigma$) and 1 pi($\pi$) bonds
4. 1 sigma ($\sigma$) and 2 pi($\pi$) bonds

273. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution?
1. $\Delta$_mix V = 0
2. $\Delta$_mix S = 0
3. Obeyance to Roult's Law
4. $\Delta$_mix H = 0

274. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is $1\times 10^{-4}$ in order to prepare a buffer solution with pH=5 the [salt]/ [Acid] ratio should be:
1. 4 : 5
2. 10 : 1
3. 5 : 4
4. 1 : 10

275. What is the density of N₂ gas at 227 °C and 5.00 atm pressure?
(R = 0.082 L Atm K^–1 mol^–1)
1. 1.40 g/L
2. 2.81 g/L
3. 3.41 g/L
4. 0.29 g/L

276. The correct IUPAC name for [CrF₂(en)₂]Cl is:

1.	Chlorodifluoridoethylenediaminechromium(III) chloride
2.	Bis-(ethylene diamine)difluoridochromium(III) chloride
3.	Difluorobis-(ethylene diamine)chromium(III) chloride
4.	Chlorodifluoridobis(ethylenediamine)chromium (III)

277. Dettol is the mixture of:
1. Chloroxylenol and Bithionol
2. Chloroxylenol and Terpineol
3. Phenol and Iodine
4. Terpineol and Bithionol

278. A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75% complete in 4 hours. The order of the reaction is:

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	0

279. The values of Ksp of CaCO₃ and CaC₂O₄ are 4.7 × 10^–9 and 1.3 × 10^–9 respectively at 25°C. If the mixture of these two is washed with water, what is the concentration of Ca²⁺ ions in the water?
1. 5.831 × 10^–5 M
2. 6.856 × 10^–5M
3. 3.606 × 10^–5 M
4. 7.746 × 10^–5 M

280. The species/pair among the following that have sp³ hybridization is:
1. SiF₄, BeH₂
2. NF₃,H₂O
3. NF₃,BF₃
4. H₂S, BF₃

281. In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are:
1. Phosphate linkage
2. H-bonding
3. Glycosidic linkage
4. Peptide linkage

282. Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex?
1. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
2. [Pt(en)Cl₂]
3. [CoBr₄]^2–
4. Mo(CO)₆
(At. No. Mo = 42, Pt = 78)

283. Sc(Z = 21) is a transition element but Zn (Z = 30) is not because:

1.	Both Sc³⁺ and Zn²⁺ ions are colourless and form white compounds
2.	In the case of Sc, 3d orbitals are partially filled but in Zn, these are fully filled.
3.	The last electron is assumed to be added to the 4s level in the case of Zn
4.	Both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states.

284. In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of AgNO₃, which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element other than chlorine):
1. X₂Cl₂
2. XCl₂
3. XCl₄
4. X₂Cl

285. A diamagnetic compound among the following is:
1. [Co(F₆)]^3–
2. [Ni(CN)₄]^2–
3. [NiCl₄]^2–
4. [Fe(CN)₆]^3–

286. On hydrolysis of a "compound", two compounds, are obtained. One of which on treatment with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid gives a product that does not respond to the iodoform test. The second one reduces Tollen's reagent and Fehling's solution. The "Compound" is:
1. CH₃CH₂CH₂NC
2. CH₃CH₂CH₂CN
3. CH₃CH₂CH₂ON = O
4. CH₃CH₂CH₂CON(CH₃)₂

287. Some reactions of amines are given. Which one is not correct?

1.
2.	$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{HNO}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}+\mathrm{N}_2 $
3.	$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{SO}_2 \mathrm{Cl} \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NHSO}_2 \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 $
4.	$\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}+\mathrm{NaNO}_2+\mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{~N}-\mathrm{N}=\mathrm{O} $

288. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
1. $O_{2}\rightarrow O_{2}^{+} $
2. $C_{2}\rightarrow C_{2}^{+} $
3. $NO\rightarrow NO^{+} $
4. $N_{2}\rightarrow N_{2}^{+} $

289. In the following reaction:
$\text {HC} \equiv \text {CH} \xrightarrow [Hg^{2+}] { H_2SO_4} P $
Product 'P' will not give
1. Tollen's reagent test
2. Fehling's solution
3. Victor Meyer test
4. Iodoform test

290. The number of isomeric alcohols (excluding stereoisomers) of molecular formula C₆H₁₄O which give a positive iodoform test are:
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two

291. Figure shows blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct identification of label and functions of the part:

1.	B - Capillary - thin without muscle layers and well two-cell thick
2.	C - Vein - thin-walled and blood flows in jerks./spurts
3.	D - Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated blood to heart PO₂=95 mm Hg
4.	A - Artery- thick-walled and blood flows evenly

292. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal?

1.	Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase → lipases
2.	Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases → nucleases
3.	Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase → disaccharidases
4.	Salivary maltase → carboxy peptidase → trypsinogen

293. The largest tiger reserve in India is:
1. Valmiki
2. Nagarjunsagar - Srisailam
3. Periyar
4. Nagarhole

294. The characteristics of class Reptilia are:

1.	Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
2.	Freshwater animals with a bony endoskeleton and air bladder to regulate buoyancy
3.	Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeletons, bodies covered with placoid scales
4.	Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears

295. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, Mustard, Soybean, Tobacco and groundnut how many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation?
1. Six
2. Seven
3. Eight
4. Five

296. During muscle contraction in humans the:
1. Sarcomere does not shorten
2. A band remains the same
3. A, H and I bands shorten
4. Actin filaments shorten

297. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?

1.	A person many contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
2.	Haemophilia is one of the STD
3.	Genital herpes and sickle-cell, anemia are both STD
4.	The chances of a 5-year boy contacting a STD are very little

298. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at:
1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Leptotene

299. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location:

1.	Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart
2.	Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart
3.	Striated muscles, tapering at both ends attached to the bones of the ribs
4.	Skeletal muscle, shows striations and is closely attached to the bones of the limbs

300. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is:
1. VNTR
2. SSCP
3. SCAR
4. AFLP

301. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their:
1. Family
2. Order
3. Division
4. Genus

302. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics:

	Blood cell	Characteristics
1.	Basophils	Secrete serotonin
2.	B-lymphocytes	form about 20% of blood cells involved in immune response
3.	Neutrophils	Most abundant blood cells, phagocytic
4.	Monocytes	Life spans 3 days, produce antibodies

303. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occur by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as:-
1. Migration
2. Natural selection
3. Genetic drift
4. Mutation

304. The plant body is thalloid in:
1. Sphagnum
2. Salvinia
3. Marchantia
4. Funaria

305. Select the correct option with respect to Cockroaches:

1.	Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
2.	Males bear short and styles not present in females
3.	Nervous system comprises a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
4.	The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight

306. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at:

1.	kinetochore
2.	both centromere and kinetochore
3.	centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere
4.	centromere

307. Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle 'A' in the diagram:

1.	Mitochondria - produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
2.	Golgi body - provides packaging material
3.	Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes
4.	Endoplasmic reticulum - synthesis of lipids

308. RNA interference involves:

1.	Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
2.	Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
3.	Interference of RNA in the synthesis of DNA
4.	Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

309. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?
1. Cnidaria
2. Porifera
3. Protozoa
4. Ctenophora

310. The figure shows a section of the human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of A and B with function/characteristic:

1.	B - Corpus luteum - secretes progesterone
2.	A - Tertiary follicle - forms Graafian follicle
3.	B - Corpus luteum - secretes LH
4.	A - Primary oocyte - it is the prophase - I of the meiotic division

311. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is:
1. embryo at 4 blastomere stage
2. embryo at 2 blastomere stage
3. Morula
4. Zygote

312. The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion of a protein with parts labelled A-D. Which one of the following options is correct?

1.	D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic acid
2.	C is an aromatic amino acid - tryptophan
3.	A is the C-terminal amino acid and D is N terminal amino acid
4.	A is the sulphur containing amino acid-methionine

313. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body.
1. Muscles of the legs
2. Blood vessels of the thigh region
3. Skin between the fingers
4. Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs

314. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for sex-determination in humans.

1.	due to some defect like aspermia in man
2.	due to the genetic makeup of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
3.	due to the genetic makeup of the egg
4.	due to some defect in the women

315. Genetic variation in a population arises due to:
1. Recombination only
2. Mutations as well as recombination
3. Reproductive isolation and selection
4. Mutations only

316. The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was decided at:
1. Durban
2. Bali
3. Doha
4. Cancun

317. Climate of the world is threatened by:
1. Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
2. Increasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
3. Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
4. Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen

318. Which of the following statement is not true for stomatal apparatus?

1.	Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria
2.	Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells
3.	Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange
4.	Inner walls of guard cells are thick

319. The age pyramid with broad base indicates:
1. high percentage of old individuals
2. low percentage of young individuals
3. a stable population
4. high percentage of young individuals

320. Select the option which shows the correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product:

	Animal	Excretory organs	Excretory product
1.	Labeo (Rohu)	Nephridial tubes	Ammonia
2.	Salamander	Kidney	Urea
3.	Peacock	Kidney	Urea
4.	Housefly	Renal tubules	Uric acid

321. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?

1.	Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
2.	As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
3.	As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
4.	As tissues (X) develops, it secretes something that shows down the growth of tissue (Y)

322. Which of the following type of plastids does not contain stored food material?
1. Chromoplasts
2. Eleioplasts
3. Aleuroplasts
4. Amyloplasts

323. Tissue culture technique can produce an infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising:

1.	genetically uniform population identical to the original parent
2.	homozygous diploid plants
3.	development of new species
4.	variants through picking up somaclonal variations

324. Inflorescence is racemose in:
1. Brinjal
2. Tulip
3. Aloe
4. Soybean

325. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1. Spirogyra -Motile gametes
2. Sargassum - Chlorophyll C
3. Basidiomycetes - Puffballs
4. Nostoc- Water blooms

326. The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse. Select the option giving correct identifications of labels A-D.

1. A-Action potential C-Neurotransmitter
2. B-Neurotransmitter D-Receptor capsules
3. C-Receptor D-Synaptic vesicles
4. A-Axon terminal B-Serotonin complex

327. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?
1. Adenovirus
2. Cosmid
3. Ri plasmid
4. Ti plasmid

328. Animal vectors are required for pollination in:
1. Vallisneria
2. Mulberry
3. Cucumber
4. Maize

329. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
1. Development of adhesive organs
2. Loss of digestive organs
3. Loss of reproductive capacity
4. Loss of unnecessary sense organs

330. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by application of:
1. NAA, 2, 4- D
2. Phenylacetic acid
3. Cytokinin
4. IAA, IBA

331. A sagittal section of the human brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-D:

1. C-Mid brain D-Cerebellum
2. A-Cerebrum C-Pons
3. B-Corpus callosum D-Medulla
4. A-Cerebral hemispheres B-Cerebellum

332. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is:
1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Streptococcus sp.
4. Trichoderma sp.

333. Down's syndrome in humans is due to:
1. Three 'X' chromosomes
2. Three copies of chromosome 21
3. Monosomy
4. Two 'Y' chromosomes

334. The viability of seeds is tested by:
1. 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols
2. 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
3. DMSO
4. Safranine

335. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo?
1. Presence of archegonia
2. Well-developed vascular tissues
3. Independent gametophyte
4. Independent sporophyte

336. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in:
1. Endosperm
2. Cotyledons
3. Hypocotyl
4. Perisperm

337. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after:
1. Mitotic division
2. Formation of a thick wall
3. Differentiation
4. Meiotic division

338. Benthic organisms are affected most by:
1. Light reaching the forest floor
2. Surface turbulence of water
3. Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
4. Water-holding capacity of soil

339. Bundle sheath cells:
1. are rich in PEP carboxylase
2. lack RuBisCo
3. lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
4. are rich in RuBisCo

340. Meristematic tissue responsible for the increase in girth of a tree trunk is:
1. Intercalary meristem
2. Lateral meristem
3. Phellogen
4. Apical meristem

341. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

	Animal	Characteristic	Taxon
1.	Millipede	Ventral nerve cord	Arachnids
2.	Sea Anemone	Triploblastic	Cnidaria
3.	Silverfish	Pectoral and pelvic fins	Chordata
4.	Duckbilled platypus	Oviparous	Mammalian

342. Which one of the following is not correct as regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometers or less?
1. It can cause respiratory problems
2. It can directly enter into our circulatory system
3. It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs
4. It can be inhaled into the lungs

343. Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
1. Mango
2. Wheat
3. Groundnut
4. Rice

344. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

1.	It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
2.	It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
3.	It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosomes
4.	It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait

345. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are:
1. Heterocysts
2. Hormogonia
3. Nodules
4. Akinetes

346. One of the following is not a method of contraception- which one?
1. condoms
2. pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
3. Lippes loop
4. tubectomy

347. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which stage is it and what are its characteristics?

1.	Metaphase-spindle fibers attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids separate
2.	Metaphase- chromosomes moved to spindle equator chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids
3.	Anaphase - centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away
4.	Late prophase - chromosomes move to spindle equator

348. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis:

1.	has unlimited growth
2.	bears a solitary flower
3.	has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
4.	terminates in a flower

349. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by:

1.	Gill slits are ventrally placed
2.	Head and trunk are widened considerably
3.	Distinct demarcation between body and tail
4.	Their pectorals fins are distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies

350. The term 'glycocalyx' is used for:

1.	a layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria
2.	cell wall of bacteria
3.	bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins
4.	a layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria

351. In an inducible operon, the genes are:
1. usually not expressed unless a signal turns them "on"
2. usually expressed unless a signal turns them "off"
3. never expressed
4. always expressed

352. Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function:

	Endocrine gland	Hormone	Functions
1.	Placenta	estrogen	initiates secretion of milk
2.	Corpus luteum	estrogen	essential for the maintenance of endometrium
3.	Leydig cells	androgen	initiates the production of sperm
4.	Ovary	FSH	stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens

353. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using:
1. Cloning vectors
2. DNA probes
3. Gene targets
4. Restriction enzymes

354. A healthy person eats the following diet-5gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adulterated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?
1. 126
2. 164
3. 112
4. 144

355. Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of muscles in humans.

1.	Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal swallowing
2.	Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints causes their inflammation
3.	An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis
4.	Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles causes muscle dystrophy

356. How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Two

357. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?

1.	The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo
2.	Somatic embryos can develop from microspores
3.	Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4–D
4.	A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell

358. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1.	Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
2.	Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination
3.	Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
4.	Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants

359. Norepinephrine:
a. is released by sympathetic fibers
b. is released by parasympathetic fibers
c. increases the heart rate
d. decreases blood pressure
Which of the above said statements are correct?
1. a and c
2. b and c
3. b and d
4. a and d

360. Dinosaurs dominated the World in which of the following geological era?
1. Coenozoic
2. Jurassic
3. Mesozoic
4. Devonion

361. Which of the following statements is correct?

1.	Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
2.	Sporopollenin in made up of inorganic materials
3.	Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis
4.	Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids

362. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
1. Caffeine
2. Morphine
3. Lysergic acid diethylamide
4. Opium

363. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?
1. Carrion
2. Insects
3. Tree buds
4. Seeds

364. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?
1. Non-overlapping
2. Ambiguous
3. Degeneracy
4. Universal

365. Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?
1. Magnesium
2. Calcium
3. Phosphorus
4. Sulphur

366. Satellite RNA are present in some:
1. Viroids
2. Prions
3. Bacteriophages
4. Plant viruses

367. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N₂) to the atmosphere?

1.	Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction
2.	Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
3.	Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
4.	Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification

368. Which of the following represents the action of insulin?

1.	Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucagon production
2.	Decreases blood glucose levels by forming glycogen
3.	Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular uptake of glucose
4.	Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of glycogen

369. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
1. They lack a rigid cell wall
2. They are heterotrophs
3. They lack nuclear membrane
4. They are phagotrophs

370. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?

1.	It protects the bacterium from desiccation
2.	It provides means of locomotion
3.	It allows the bacterium to "hide" from the host's immune system.
4.	It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface

371. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of:
1. oxytocin from foetal pituitary
2. human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
3. human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
4. oxytocin from maternal pituitary

372. Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem?
1. Grasshopper
2. Wolf
3. Phytoplankton
4. Lion

373. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to:
1. Precipitate DNA
2. Break open the cell to release DNA
3. Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
4. Remove proteins such as histones

374. When a man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which has eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is:
1. Small plants
2. Fish
3. Man
4. Zooplankton

375. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in:
1. Mosses
2. Algae
3. Ferns
4. Fungi

376.

The figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A, B and C.
1. A - Maurice Wilkins B - transcription C - translation
2. A - James Watson B - replication C - extension
3. A - Erwin Chargaff B - translation C - replication
4. A - Francis Crick B - translation C - transcription

377. Uridine, present only in RNA is:
1. nucleoside
2. nucleotide
3. purine
4. pyrimidine

378. Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal body?

1.	Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
2.	Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
3.	Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, and trachea oxygen diffuses into cells
4.	Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues

379. Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong?

1.	Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
2.	Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also
3.	Enzymes are highly specific.
4.	Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity.

380. Which organization publishes the 'Red Data Book'?
1. IUCN
2. UNEP
3. WWF
4. GEF

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1.	\(\frac{T}{2}\)	2.	\(\frac{T}{3}\)
3.	\(\frac{T}{12}\)	4.	\(\frac{T}{6}\)

a.	\(\vec{F} \times \vec{a}~~~~~~~\)
b.	\(\vec{v} \times\vec{r}\)
c.	\(\vec{a} \times\vec{r}\)
d.	\(\vec{F} \times\vec{r}\)

1.	\(P_1=P_2~~~~~\)	2.	\(P_1=4P_2~~~~~\)
3.	\(P_2=2P_1\)	4.	\(P_2=4P_1\)

a.	the first overtone is \(400\) Hz.
b.	the first overtone may be \(400\) Hz.
c.	the first overtone may be \(600\) Hz.
d.	\(600\) Hz is an overtone.

1.	\(1 \over 6\) s	2.	\(1 \over 4\) s
3.	\(1 \over 3\) s	4.	\(1 \over 12\) s

1.	\(1~~~~~~~\)	2.	\(2~~~~~~~\)
3.	\( \sqrt 2\)	4.	\(1 \over \sqrt 2\)

1.	\(\lambda=3.14A~~~~~~~\)	2.	\(\lambda=6.28A~~~~~~~\)
3.	\(6.28\lambda=A\)	4.	\(3.14\lambda=A\)

1.	pulse is moving in \((\mathrm{-x})\) direction.
2.	wave speed is \(0.5\) m/s.
3.	maximum particle displacement is \(1\) cm.
4.	it is a symmetric pulse.

1.	\(\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{6}\)	2.	\(\frac{{2}\mathit{\pi}}{3}\)
3.	\(\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{4}\)	4.	\(\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{3}\)

1.	\({ 1 \over 2L} \sqrt {T\over m}~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\)	2.	\(\frac{1}{4 L} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\)
3.	\(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{TL}{2m}}\)	4.	\(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m L}}\)

1.	\(1.47\) Hz	2.	\(0.36\) Hz
3.	\(0.73\) Hz	4.	\(2.94\) Hz

1.	\(2\sqrt{2}\)	2.	\(2\)
3.	\(4\)	4.	\(8\)

1.	\(5\) Hz	2.	\(10\) Hz
3.	\(40\) Hz	4.	\(20\) Hz

1.	\(3\)	2.	\(7\)
3.	\(2\)	4.	\(5\)

1.	\(2^{\text{nd}}\) harmonic	2.	\(3^{\text{rd}}\) harmonic
3.	\(6^{\text{th}}\) harmonic	4.	\(12^{\text{th}}\) harmonic

1.	\({1\over \sqrt 2}\) unit	2.	\(\sqrt 2 \) unit
3.	\(1\) unit	4.	\(2\) unit

Statement I:	Addition of \(Cl_2\) in the presence of \(CCl_4 \) with alkene will give geminal dichloride.
Statement II:	The addition of two moles of HCl with alkyne will give vicinal dichloride.

1.	\((CH_3)_3C(CH_2)_2CH_3~~~~~~~~~~~~~\)
2.	4-isobutylheptane
3.
4.

(I)	\(\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_2~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~\)
(II)	\(\mathrm{CH}_3-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)
(III)	\(\text {CH}_2=\mathrm{CH}-\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}-\mathrm{CH}_3\)
(IV)

1.	\(20~\mathrm{V}\) and \(2.0~\mathrm{mA}\)
2.	\(10~\mathrm{V}\) and \(0.5~\mathrm{mA}\)
3.	zero and therefore no current
4.	\(20~\mathrm{V}\) and \(0.5~\mathrm{mA}\)

(a)	\(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_3 \)
(b)	\(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}} \)
(c)	\(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H} \)
(d)	\( \text {CH}_3 \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_2\)
(e)	\( \stackrel{\oplus}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_3 \)

(i)	C_(graphite) + O₂(g) \(\rightarrow\) CO₂(g); \(\Delta_{r}\)H° = x kJ mol^–1
(ii)	C_graphite + 1/2 O₂(g) \(\rightarrow\) CO(g); \(\Delta_{r}\)H° = y kJ mol^–1
(iii)	CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) \(\rightarrow\) CO₂(g); \(\Delta_{r}\)H° = z kJ mol^–1

1.	\(\begin{aligned} & (CH_3)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ & <CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<(CH_3)_3 \dot{C} & \\ \end{aligned}\)
2.	\( \begin{aligned} &CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3 \\ & <\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}\end{aligned}\)
3.	\(\begin{aligned} & CH_3-\dot{C} H_2<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3\\ &<\left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2 CH_3 \end{aligned}\)
4.	\(\begin{aligned} & \left(CH_3\right)_3 \dot{C}<\left(CH_3\right)_2 \dot{C}-CH_2-CH_3 \\ &<CH_3-\dot{C} H-CH_3<CH_3-\dot{C} H_2 \end{aligned}\)

1.
2.	\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{HNO}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}+\mathrm{N}_2 \)
3.	\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \mathrm{SO}_2 \mathrm{Cl} \rightarrow \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{NHSO}_2 \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_5 \)
4.	\(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{NH}+\mathrm{NaNO}_2+\mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{~N}-\mathrm{N}=\mathrm{O} \)

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